When two parties enter into an agreement, and one member of the party intentionally undermines the value of the agreement, then that party did not act in good faith.
By printing money out of thin air the federal reserve undermined the value of the dollar.
I see no reason why china can not request payment in full at the value of the year the debt was bought.
Because of the law and the nature of the bond agreement. Furthermore, the federal reserve did not issue the bonds, the US government did.
If you think otherwise that basically means you're unable to read the terms the bonds were sold under. Are you able to read?
Lets say china bought 500 million of us debt in 1990. When that matures I see no reason why they can not ask for payment in full at 1990 buying power instead of inflated value.
They can't because that's not the terms of the agreement. If you bought a stock in 1990 you have no right to redeem it for its 1990 value in 2014.
Laws and contracts have meaning. You don't get to selectively ignore them.
