Yes, they are "near the same level." They were both leaders endorsing policies eradicating millions of people, motivated by prejudice.
Sure, but Churchill didn't just not send food to people. He created the situation, knew what was happening due to this actions and policies, knew how to fix it, had the capability and resources to fix it, but did not because he believed that fixing it would cause the birth of more people of a people he despised. Are you saying that is a trivial thing?
First of all, I don't single them out. They are just the majority of posts. In addition, I've already answered this question.
It's interesting that you can even ask since you do the same with all sorts of groups: Hispanics, Muslims, Indians, etc.
I don't know. What proportion of genocides throughout history do you deny?
By situation I mean the economic and political decisions creating the Bengal Famine. The destruction of boats, etc. Who attacked first is irrelevant in this analysis.
Do you think that the British could have killed as many people as they wanted to because they were attacked in lands they themselves enslaved and attacked?