question about overclocking heat

[mavenhead]

From what I understand, a chip manufacturer sells, e.g., a processor with a 900 MHz core labeled and "crippled" as a 700 MHz, by adjusting the multiplyer via soldered-in resistors. It's sold at 700 because there is a market demand for a 700. When someone takes that cpu and overclocks back to what it's core originally was, i.e., 900, then we start talking about the tremendous rise in temp, the need for major cooling solutions, etc.
My question is, shouldn't that overclocked 700 be the same temperature as a retail 900? NObody talksabout the need to give special care to a retail 900, so why should the 700 overclocked back up to it's original core of 900 need for the major cooling solutions?
Thanks for the explainations in advance

 

[AndyHui]

This can be a controversial topic, and it's a lot more complex than the situation you have described.

Perhaps you should have a look at this thread which looks at the consequences of what you are talking about.

In particular, take note of pm's responses. He is an engineer at Intel.