Quantum Mechanics: double slit experiment

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JTsyo

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Nov 18, 2007
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I was going through the Hawking book on QM and he went over how when shooting photons through the slits, that take all available paths and it's just that some paths have a near zero probability. Wouldn't the paths available be restricted by the speed of light? So you fire the light and it hits senors at the other side but any path that the photon takes had to be compete in the time it takes light to travel that distance, right?
 

Born2bwire

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Oct 28, 2005
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It's a common explanation that isn't accurate. There are different ways to calculate quantum mechanics and one of the more popular is the path integral. The path integral basically sums up the wavefunctions that represent a given path through the parameter space (more accurately the states). For example, let's say you have a photon source at A and a detector at B. A photon is created at time t=a. So the path integral can be used to calculate the probability amplitude (which can be used to find the probability) that you detect the photon at location and time (B, b) that was created at (A, a). Mathematically, this is done by saying that the probability amplitude, K, of this event is K(A,a; B,b) and is equivalent to the superposition of K(A,a; C,c) + K(C,c; B,b) for all (C,c) where (C,c) is an arbitrary intermediate position and time.

In essence, you can think of it as being that the amplitude from A->B is equal to the summation of all amplitudes that represent A->C->B. You can further generalize this by saying that you can do A->C->D->B and so forth. If you allow for infinitesimal differences between the positions and times, then you turn it from a summation into an integral over every possible path between A and B. But these are not physical paths, we are not saying that the particle actually travels along these paths. In addition, these are actually quantum states as opposed to saying that the photon is at point C at time c.

What happens though is that for paths that would seemingly break special relativity (and the path integral is normally used for quantum mechanics that obeys special relativity, e.g.: Quantum Field Theory and QED) the contributions of these paths to the probability amplitude are generally negligible. The "faster than light" path G has a contribution, but its neighboring path G+\delta cancels out this contribution (this is along the lines of integrating a complex function far from the path of steepest descent, the classical paths are generally steepest descent paths and contribute the most to the probability amplitude).

So long story short, this is another victim of trying to conceptualize the mathematics for laymen explanations. Feynman describes the exact same phenomenon in his QED using his stopwatch explanation. The stopwatch's progression is the phase progression of the path integral's integrand over the path in the configuration space. Paths, like the "faster than light" paths, that do not contribute will progress the stopwatch very quickly over short movements in the configuration space. This indicates that the phase changes wildly while transitioning between neighboring paths. This causes the contributions from neighboring paths to cancel out leaving only contributions from groups of paths that are slowly varying (which again usually lie around the classical paths).
 

Selenium_Glow

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I was going through the Hawking book on QM and he went over how when shooting photons through the slits, that take all available paths and it's just that some paths have a near zero probability. Wouldn't the paths available be restricted by the speed of light? So you fire the light and it hits senors at the other side but any path that the photon takes had to be compete in the time it takes light to travel that distance, right?

Well, see this experiment this way ->
Light will travel at constant speed 'c'. You can safely assume that in the double slit experiment, the light will travel through all possible paths, and will take different amount of time to travel different distances of all the paths.

Now, what exactly is our final observation in this double slit experiment?
What we actually observe is the final result after light has traveled all distances and made it's way upto your eye/camera.
The velocity of light is too damn fast... we can't observe how much time it takes for the light to travel different distances, making the measurement of time difference even more difficult if not impossible.

So what exactly gives us this final result of the double slit experiment? Born2bwire has given a great explanation in the post above. I'll summarize it this way -> It is not the time difference of the distances light has to travel, but the time difference or path difference of one wavelength and it's corresponding amplitude (defined by the Wave-function of the light particle) of the light of all possible paths.

I can put a more detailed step wise explanation if this still isn't clear to you.
 
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JTsyo

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ahh there was a part about the Feynman sum. So is it ever possible that one of these less likely events not cancel out? The Improbability Drive from HHGG comes to mind.
 

Born2bwire

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Oct 28, 2005
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ahh there was a part about the Feynman sum. So is it ever possible that one of these less likely events not cancel out? The Improbability Drive from HHGG comes to mind.

But the point is that these events are not physical, it's just a mathematical construct that has a convenient physical parallel. Only the integration over all of the paths results in a quantity that has physical consequences. Quantum mechanics is confusing because it redefines classical physics. There are direct parallels to classical physics in quantum where the mathematics and operators are similar to classical ones. As such, names and metaphors are often derived to described the quantum mechanical analogue. For example, particles like electrons and photons have a spin in quantum mechanics. Spin does not mean that the particles are thought to actually be physically spinning. Spin was taken because the operators involved were very similar to the classical operators for angular momentum and spin. Likewise, what is meant by the word particle is different in quantum mechanics than classical mechanics.

But to directly answer your question, yes, the paths that lie towards the infinite distance away from the classical paths can still contribute but as far as I can recall not in a physical way. For example, we can use a path integral to calculate the Casimir Force by having a path integral that integrates over all possible electromagnetic fields. Physically, the high frequency fields do not contribute but the path integral is divergent resulting in every frequency contributing. The solution is renormalization that removes the divergent part of the path integral while not affecting the physical results. Infinities like this crop up very often in quantum field theory.
 
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