- Feb 23, 2005
- 11,940
- 542
- 126
I've been ruminating on the issue of polygamy since it had appeared as a subject in the wake of the recent supreme court ruling.
In principle, I have no ideological objection to polygamy, but as I think we sussed out in earlier threads, the recent ruling of the court does not strictly apply to plural marriage. More generally, however, I'm leery of the ways polygamy has been practiced in the past amongst religious sects, often including child and spousal abuse, for example.
Slippery slope arguments are informal fallacies, but sometimes what appears to be a slippery slope fallacy is actually not.
I began to wonder, what would be the consequences of massively plural marriages? What if a town of 300 people all got married into one large marriage? What about a town of 3000? 3000000?
As the numbers increase, there are obvious logistical/practical limitations -- how long must a wedding for 3000 people take? -- but these are not limitations in principle.
The core question I was exploring is this: is there some number of spouses where there emerges a compelling government interest to establish a numerical limit? And if the government can see a compelling interest to limit that number, why can't that number simply be 1?
In principle, I have no ideological objection to polygamy, but as I think we sussed out in earlier threads, the recent ruling of the court does not strictly apply to plural marriage. More generally, however, I'm leery of the ways polygamy has been practiced in the past amongst religious sects, often including child and spousal abuse, for example.
Slippery slope arguments are informal fallacies, but sometimes what appears to be a slippery slope fallacy is actually not.
I began to wonder, what would be the consequences of massively plural marriages? What if a town of 300 people all got married into one large marriage? What about a town of 3000? 3000000?
As the numbers increase, there are obvious logistical/practical limitations -- how long must a wedding for 3000 people take? -- but these are not limitations in principle.
The core question I was exploring is this: is there some number of spouses where there emerges a compelling government interest to establish a numerical limit? And if the government can see a compelling interest to limit that number, why can't that number simply be 1?