My goal is to prove that the 3rd root of 3 is irrational. I use the same method as proving sqrt(2) is irrational, however, I ran into a question.
When proving sqrt(2), we use a statement that because a^2 = 2b^2, a^2 is even and therefore a must also be. This is intuitive, but for 3rd root of 3, you get:
a^3 = 3b^3. Is it safe to use the logic in the aqrt(2) proof and say that a^3 is divisible by 3, so a must also be divisble by 3? If so, could someone supply me with the method of proving that statement? Thanks!
When proving sqrt(2), we use a statement that because a^2 = 2b^2, a^2 is even and therefore a must also be. This is intuitive, but for 3rd root of 3, you get:
a^3 = 3b^3. Is it safe to use the logic in the aqrt(2) proof and say that a^3 is divisible by 3, so a must also be divisble by 3? If so, could someone supply me with the method of proving that statement? Thanks!