I think the only hard part of this problem is finding the capacitance of a conducting sphere.
For a symmetric conducting sphere of with a charge q, equally distributed about it's surface, we can treat it as a point charge at the center of the sphere if we're outside the sphere, so the potential at radius A is V(A) = kq/A (same as point charge). Then dV/dt = k/A (dQ/dt) = (k/A) I. In this case, I = (I1-I2). So we have
dV/dt = (k/A) (I1-I2)
Now integrate up once. First the left hand side: (integral time = 0 to time = tfinal) dV/dt = Vfinal = B. Now for the right hand side; since I1, I2, and A are constant in time, this is easy: (integral time = 0 to time = tfinal) (k/A) (I1-I2) = (k/A)(I1-I2)(tfinal). So we get
B = (k/A)(I1-I2)(tfinal)
tfinal = BA/k(I1-I2)
In MKS, k is 1/4(pi)(epsilon), so you get what both PM650 and esun reported.