I just wanted to throw this out...
Think for a moment. What is the purpose of the statutes that allow for the manual recount of an election?
The answer is quite simple. To allow the loosing party to contest results of the election in that area be it county or state.
Why then is Gore only recounting the votes in counties where he WON by a large margin?
It becomes rather clear in my opinion that he is attempting to twist the states laws in his favor.
Has anyone brought this up yet. It makes sense to me that in all reality, the law only provides that he recounts the counties that he lost in. Isn't that really the true purpose of those provisions?
Think for a moment. What is the purpose of the statutes that allow for the manual recount of an election?
The answer is quite simple. To allow the loosing party to contest results of the election in that area be it county or state.
Why then is Gore only recounting the votes in counties where he WON by a large margin?
It becomes rather clear in my opinion that he is attempting to twist the states laws in his favor.
Has anyone brought this up yet. It makes sense to me that in all reality, the law only provides that he recounts the counties that he lost in. Isn't that really the true purpose of those provisions?
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