I voted against Prop 8 when it was first being voted on. I don't believe that heterosexuals have done such a great job "protecting the sanctity of marriage" themselves...why should gay people not have the right to fuck up their lives too...BUT, on the arguments being used here, if gay marriage is a Constitutionally guaranteed right, why hasn't this been decided by the USSC before now?
You'd think that IF this were a right with such strong guarantees as the US Constitution, someone would have challenged the "moral police" and their strict laws against gay marriage long ago.
IF it were a Constitutional issue, the USSC would have stepped in at some previous time in US history to guarantee the right.
IF it were truly a Constitutional issue, Congress would have passed the necessary laws to ensure that the rights of gay people weren't being trampled on.
I believe that the individual states should be the ones to make the decision whether to permit gay marriage in their state...HOWEVER, if a state does permit gay marriage, do the other states have to recognize it?
Do states have the right to legislate "morality?" Seems like that's a big part of what most state laws are all about...morality in one way or another.
IF this ruling stands with the USSC, I fully expect to start to see the same sorts of challenges by polygamists...after all, even though it's not the same thing...laws against polygamy are also just the majority legislating the morals of the minority...