Poll: How did human life come about?

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Satchel

Member
Mar 19, 2003
105
0
0
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Course it could be wrong. That is part of what makes an opinion an opinion. I never made a claim of absolute proof. That is what I am trying to get you fools to understand.
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
NO OPINION CAN BE DISCREDITED.
:confused:

Do you not know what the word "could" mean?

It could be wrong, but you can't prove it wrong, hence discredit it. It remains someone's opinion. Feel free to disagree, but you can't disprove that the credit is a con any more than I can prove it. Therefore it must remain an opinion.

Seriously, have you not encountered opinions in your existence?

Sleep now, I mean it.
Seriously, how many words are you going to argue the definition of? Now you're arguing the semantics of the word "could." Maybe you should just put your pride aside and admit that you "could" be wrong.
 

engineereeyore

Platinum Member
Jul 23, 2005
2,070
0
0
Originally posted by: Garth
That's funny. I thought it always meant "to cease living." It doesn't bode well for your argument that you have to begin by re-defining terms that already have well-established meanings.

No Christian accepts your definition of death, so why would you call it well-established? It's only well established as meaning that among people who don't believe in a resurrection. Seeing as we're discussing a Christian topic, your definition is irrelevant. If you wish to make an argument about a Christian topic, you'll have to stick to Christian vocabulary. Can't have it both ways.

Then what is all this talk of "spiritual death"?

As has been plainly stated several times, it is the separation from God, who is the creator of our spirits.

That's just flat-out wrong.

Only in your belief system, not in Christians. You can't use your beliefs to disprove mine. Doesn't work. If you wish to continue the argument, you're going to have to accept that what I said is true. Otherwise, you have absolutely not argument whatsoever.

I'm sorry, but your argument is simply preposterous.

Again, only to you.

And that has exactly what to do with the passage in question?

It was an attempt to further help you understand what death really is. I see you completely ignored it, which is to be expected. The passage talked about death. You didn't understand how someone could be dead and still be alive. I gave you a perfect example, and yet you ignored it completely. Who'd have thought?

Where does it say that?

The sentence that declares that Adam will die is in Genesis 3:19. Prior to that time, he was immortal.

As for the spiritual death, that is just flat evident. Up until the end of Genesis chapter 3, Adam was able to converse with the Lord at any time. However, after being cast out of the garden, this was no longer the case. He had isolated himself from the Lord due to his sin, for no unclean thing can see God. Thus, we are separated from God due to our sin, thus experiencing, wait for it,.... spiritual death.

 

Crono

Lifer
Aug 8, 2001
23,720
1,503
136
To all the Christians who believe in evolution or think it could possibly co-exist with the theory of evolution:

Don't compare the Bible to evolution to see how evolution fits in with the Bible , but rather compare evolution to the Bible and see if what evolution claims has any truth as compared to the absolute truth of the Bible. Always compare what man says to what God says, and not the other way around. The knowledge of man is fallible and incomplete, whereas the knowledge of God is not.

Evolution and the Bible are not compatible. Evolution says that man evolved over millions of years. The Bible, however, gives the entire lineage of man from Adam to Jesus, and even with the length of life being several hundred years for early man after the fall, the entire history of man is not more than several thousand years (~ 6,000 years) according to scripture. What God says in Genesis is that He created the entire world in 6 days, and on the 7th day He rested (by resting, He gave the nation of Israel the Sabbath day principle of 6 days of work, 7th day to rest- He did not want man to work for 6 million years, and rest on the 7th million). The Hebrew word there for day ("yowm") can mean period of time, but from the context and from the way it is used in other passages of scripture, it is clear that when the Bible says "day" it is referring to a single day-night period of time.

And like others have pointed out, it does not make sense for there to be such a gap between days, especially because of the interdependence of life (which most likely, even before the fall and death, was there). There is no reason to interpret either from Genesis 1, nor from other passages of scripture, that the earth was created in anything other than 6 days; don't try to accommodate evolution by adding to scripture or subjecting it to private interpretation.
 

engineereeyore

Platinum Member
Jul 23, 2005
2,070
0
0
Originally posted by: GagHalfrunt

The world itself is not 4,500-6.000 years old. We know that for a fact
Mankind has not been around for 4,500-6,000 years. We know that for a fact
There was no worldwide flood 3,500 years ago. We know that for a fact
The population of the earth wasn't wiped out except for one family 3,500 years ago and then repopulate from the same DNA. We know that for a fact.

Just as a matter of clarification, the Bible does not make any claims that the age of the Earth is 4,500-6,000 years old. The 'days' in the first chapter of Genesis are better translated as 'periods'. Plus, no one knows how long Adam was in the garden before he was expelled. The Bible only records the time from when Adam was expelled till shortly after the life of Christ. Therefore, you can not say with any certainty that the Bible says this or that about how long the Earth has been in existence, because it's flat out not true.

Also, there is no proof the flood didn't happen. Between the water in the Earth and the water on the Earth, there was more than enough water. Is it scientifically plausible? Probably not, but definitely not impossible and definitely not proven to not have happened.
 

engineereeyore

Platinum Member
Jul 23, 2005
2,070
0
0
Originally posted by: Vic
Meh. This is unrelated, but John never said "word" as you see in the English translations (and is the basis for much fundamentalist argument). He said Logos, for which there is no modern English translation. Closest I could think of would be something like the rational thought expressing itself.

Agreed, off topic, but yes, I think a better interpretation and one used often in the Greek culture, specifically by Plato, was "intelligences". That sound agreeable?
 

shadow9d9

Diamond Member
Jul 6, 2004
8,132
2
0
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Course it could be wrong. That is part of what makes an opinion an opinion. I never made a claim of absolute proof. That is what I am trying to get you fools to understand.
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
NO OPINION CAN BE DISCREDITED.
:confused:

Do you not know what the word "could" mean?

It could be wrong, but you can't prove it wrong, hence discredit it. It remains someone's opinion. Feel free to disagree, but you can't disprove that the credit is a con any more than I can prove it. Therefore it must remain an opinion.

Seriously, have you not encountered opinions in your existence?

Sleep now, I mean it.
Seriously, how many words are you going to argue the definition of? Now you're arguing the semantics of the word "could." Maybe you should just put your pride aside and admit that you "could" be wrong.


I already said I could. An opinion is not a fact.

They aren't semantics. You don't seem to know what an opinion is. ELementary school should have explained it to you.

We can try it again...

Bush went to war with Iraq. With the same set of information you could have an opinion that:
he went with good intentions
he went with bad intentions
we are successful there.
we are unsuccessful there.

These cannot be proven nor disproven. They are opinion.

You CANNOT say
my opinion is that bush never went to Iraq.

Get it? It is a very very simple concept.

You can say the Bible was a con or that it is the absolute truth. Both are opinion of a stated view based on the same evidence, neither could be proven nor disproven. You cannot say there is no such thing as the bible.
 

Mo0o

Lifer
Jul 31, 2001
24,227
3
76
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Course it could be wrong. That is part of what makes an opinion an opinion. I never made a claim of absolute proof. That is what I am trying to get you fools to understand.
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
NO OPINION CAN BE DISCREDITED.
:confused:

Do you not know what the word "could" mean?

It could be wrong, but you can't prove it wrong, hence discredit it. It remains someone's opinion. Feel free to disagree, but you can't disprove that the credit is a con any more than I can prove it. Therefore it must remain an opinion.

Seriously, have you not encountered opinions in your existence?

Sleep now, I mean it.
Seriously, how many words are you going to argue the definition of? Now you're arguing the semantics of the word "could." Maybe you should just put your pride aside and admit that you "could" be wrong.


I already said I could. An opinion is not a fact.

They aren't semantics. You don't seem to know what an opinion is. ELementary school should have explained it to you.

We can try it again...

Bush went to war with Iraq. With the same set of information you could have an opinion that:
he went with good intentions
he went with bad intentions
we are successful there.
we are unsuccessful there.

These cannot be proven nor disproven. They are opinion.

You CANNOT say
my opinion is that bush never went to Iraq.

Get it? It is a very very simple concept.

You can say the Bible was a con or that it is the absolute truth. Both are opinion of a stated view based on the same evidence, neither could be proven nor disproven. You cannot say there is no such thing as the bible.
well if someone could proven the validity of the stories in the Bible one could likely say it wasn't a con
 

shadow9d9

Diamond Member
Jul 6, 2004
8,132
2
0
Originally posted by: Mo0o
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Course it could be wrong. That is part of what makes an opinion an opinion. I never made a claim of absolute proof. That is what I am trying to get you fools to understand.
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
NO OPINION CAN BE DISCREDITED.
:confused:

Do you not know what the word "could" mean?

It could be wrong, but you can't prove it wrong, hence discredit it. It remains someone's opinion. Feel free to disagree, but you can't disprove that the credit is a con any more than I can prove it. Therefore it must remain an opinion.

Seriously, have you not encountered opinions in your existence?

Sleep now, I mean it.
Seriously, how many words are you going to argue the definition of? Now you're arguing the semantics of the word "could." Maybe you should just put your pride aside and admit that you "could" be wrong.


I already said I could. An opinion is not a fact.

They aren't semantics. You don't seem to know what an opinion is. ELementary school should have explained it to you.

We can try it again...

Bush went to war with Iraq. With the same set of information you could have an opinion that:
he went with good intentions
he went with bad intentions
we are successful there.
we are unsuccessful there.

These cannot be proven nor disproven. They are opinion.

You CANNOT say
my opinion is that bush never went to Iraq.

Get it? It is a very very simple concept.

You can say the Bible was a con or that it is the absolute truth. Both are opinion of a stated view based on the same evidence, neither could be proven nor disproven. You cannot say there is no such thing as the bible.
well if someone could proven the validity of the stories in the Bible one could likely say it wasn't a con


If someone could prove all of the stories, and that their word is somehow the word of a "god", then yes. This cannot possibly be proven though.

If I write a book saying that my word is the word of god and I tell 100 stories, and a few have some truth in it, does it make the book the word of god? Does it make it less of a con?
 

RapidSnail

Diamond Member
Apr 28, 2006
4,257
0
0
Originally posted by: Crono
To all the Christians who believe in evolution or think it could possibly co-exist with the theory of evolution:

Don't compare the Bible to evolution to see how evolution fits in with the Bible , but rather compare evolution to the Bible and see if what evolution claims has any truth as compared to the absolute truth of the Bible. Always compare what man says to what God says, and not the other way around. The knowledge of man is fallible and incomplete, whereas the knowledge of God is not.

Evolution and the Bible are not compatible. Evolution says that man evolved over millions of years. The Bible, however, gives the entire lineage of man from Adam to Jesus, and even with the length of life being several hundred years for early man after the fall, the entire history of man is not more than several thousand years (~ 6,000 years) according to scripture. What God says in Genesis is that He created the entire world in 6 days, and on the 7th day He rested (by resting, He gave the nation of Israel the Sabbath day principle of 6 days of work, 7th day to rest- He did not want man to work for 6 million years, and rest on the 7th million). The Hebrew word there for day ("yowm") can mean period of time, but from the context and from the way it is used in other passages of scripture, it is clear that when the Bible says "day" it is referring to a single day-night period of time.

And like others have pointed out, it does not make sense for there to be such a gap between days, especially because of the interdependence of life (which most likely, even before the fall and death, was there). There is no reason to interpret either from Genesis 1, nor from other passages of scripture, that the earth was created in anything other than 6 days; don't try to accommodate evolution by adding to scripture or subjecting it to private interpretation.

:thumbsup:

Same thing I said earlier.
 

purplehippo

Elite Member
Oct 22, 2000
45,626
12
81
Originally posted by: zinfamous
Originally posted by: Mo0o
Originally posted by: zinfamous
I actually agree with Rapid Snail's argument about Adam's spiritual death. It's the kind of thing that you need to understand when explicating Renassaince literature, as well as Old/Middle English lit (Beowulf, Canterbury tales, etc). I place value in the bible as an allegorical fable and a wonderful literary text. It is not rational to me to say that God spoke, and vomited out the bible in pure, literal splendor.

The rest of your arguments are pretty asinine: "It is impossible for the unsaved to truly understand the word of god." Clearly, Rapid Snail is just as qualified of properly translating and understanding the text as Seekermeister. I imagine they would probably disagree on many points as well....wrap that around your god-filled noodles ;)

Is it just me or is it circular to prove the truth of the bible with even more exerpts from the bible.


Well, it depends on your idea of truth. And this is exactly why the debate between science and religion is ridiculous. Truth in science depends on testability, observation, fallibility. Truth in religion relies on the inherent truth that is the word. It is based on faith.

Rationally speaking, it is circular to use the one source to prove the validity of that source. For a pious individual, however, that source is the truth. You and I may find that idiotic, but I don't begrudge them their faith.

I will, however, take offense when they try to rationalize other aspects of life, versions of truth using that same irrational approach to truth. I know that I can distinguish these concepts; I also know that the truly pious can not.

The simplicity of the gospel eludes the wisest of men. The profoundness of the scripture was this; if by looking at what is made around you, you can still come to the conclusion that things evloved then you will be without excuse in the end. Why is it so difficult to accept creation? Life had to start somewhere, even the most minute particle. Is there an example of anything in this world that creates life from an inannimate object? How did that object come into existence? Is it easier to believe that 2 particles crashed together to form some sort of life? Or that is is possible that we evolved from monkey's? Science itself is based on theory, an assumption that some thing is true. Faith is the substance of believing in things that are unseen or unknown. What is the difference? I can see by the things around me, nature, people and the heavens, that something or someone had control of that design. It is far easier for me to believe this than an assertion something collided with somnething else that ended up evolving into the tiny hands that curled round mine, perfectly formed, newborn son or daughter. In essence, both sides must in the end take some step of faith. My step is a belief in God and yours is a belief in a theory.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,994
31,558
146
Originally posted by: Mo0o
Originally posted by: Crono
Evolutional theory is absolutely dependant on the faulty assumption that if two organisms are similar, they must be directly related. Look at the use of fossils to support revolutionary theory: a scientist says that one organism (now a fossil; let?s call this organism ?A?) from x number of years ago is the ancestor of another organism (now a fossil; let?s call this organism ?B?) from x ? y number of years ago. But unless both organisms were observed when they were alive, and their progeny were observed, you cannot say that B is of the same lineage of A, no matter how similar they are. Use common sense, and you can easily see why this is true.

?Well what about genetic evidence??, you might say. It?s the same general principle. Those that claim that genetic similarity between species implies relation are wrong. It?s a fundamental logical fallacy to make that assumption. To use a metaphor, just because two computer applications have similar code and structures doesn?t mean that one app is a new version of the other. They could be written by the same programmer, and/or written in the same programming language. They could be very similar indeed (especially to someone who doesn?t know programming that well), but still be completely independently created programs.

Morphological similarities- same exact thing. Families and trees are artificial groupings based on morphological similarities, and morphological similarities, again, do not prove relationship between species. You cannot say A and B are related just because they are similar in features.

Evolution is completely based on a bad foundation. Evolutionists (yes, I can use that word if you?re going to call me a ?creationist?) really like to complicate the issue by adding complex theories on top and pointing to various papers and studies done. But when buying a building, do you look at the rest of the building if the foundation is bad? No, the foundation is essential to the integrity of the entire building. Evolution is entirely based on a false assumption, and the type of evolution that we are talking about here, macroevolution, has never been observed, PERIOD. Microevolution has been observed, but that is really genetic variation within a type of organism, and really is just a form of adaptation. You never see (or will see) a monkey turn into a human, or a human evolve into something that isn?t a human (unless scientists decide to play God and mess around with human DNA, but that is something else entirely, which requires intelligence, and not randomness).


"Homology: The word homologous is from the Ancient Greek for 'agree'- ?µ????e??, eg. homologous chromosomes 'agree' with each other.

In genetics, homology is measured by comparing protein or DNA sequences. Two homologous genes share a high sequence identity or similarity, supporting the hypothesis that they share a common ancestor. Sequence homology may also indicate common function. Sequence regions that are homologous may also be called conserved. Homologous sequences can be classified into two subtypes: orthologous or paralogous.

In evolutionary biology, Homology is used to describe structures that are alike due to common ancestry." - Wikipedia
If you admit microevolution exists, are you admitting that its possible to create a phylogenetic tree based on this microevolutionary steps within a species? Or is that also not possible despite the fact taht we know how mutations occur and a general rate of mutation... And we also know speciation can be observed in nature. Where 1 species diverge into two impatible species and this evidence can be seen genetically as well. You say the assumption that homologous sequences do not necessarily come from the same ancestor, which I suppose is possible but thats like saying when you see a bunch of dots arrayed in a straight line, the function graphing those dots isn't necessarily a line but some polynomial function.

The fact of the matter is, we can experimentally mutate sequences of DNA/RNA and make accurate phylogenetic trees based on evolutionary/phylogenetic theory.

And I'm not sure why you mentioned sequence homology. You haven't really made an arguement, just reiterated what sequence homology means


It's not worth it. His "evidence" is: "I don't believe it." He has no support for his argument. He took an elective in genetics in middle school. He felt that it disagreed with his Sunday school class, so he rejects it at the surface without understanding the facts behind the terminology.
 

KurskKnyaz

Senior member
Dec 1, 2003
880
1
81
Originally posted by: Vic
Originally posted by: KurskKnyaz
Originally posted by: Squisher
Originally posted by: KurskKnyaz
not to mention that coming to a conclusion that something doesn't exists, like atheists do, is logically flawed.
So there is hope for the Tooth Fairy, Santa Claus, and the Easter Bunny?
From a philosophical standpoint you could not prove to me that the Tooth Fairy, Santa Claus, and the Easter Bunny DON'T exists. You can only prove if things DO exists and that is what we believe by default. Being agnostic is one thing, but coming to a conclusion that something doesn't exists is flawed. You cannot prove a negative. I'm not saying go hope for a tooth fairy, I'm saying don't try to claim that you have proof it doesn't exist.
Of course you can prove that the Tooth Fairy, Santa Claus, and the Easter Bunny don't exist. Who puts the money under the pillow, the presents under the tree, and hides the painted eggs in the yard? It's not one of those 3, is it? So yes, you can prove a negative. The reason you can't prove that God doesn't exist is because (1) the concept (God) is not well-defined, and (2) the functions of the concept fall in areas outside the range of human knowledge and experience.

You can prove that it was your mom who put money under the pillow and not the Tooth Fairy. You cannot prove that the Tooth fairy doesn't exist in the same way that you cannot prove a purple stripped zebra doesn't exist because you have nothing to test.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,994
31,558
146
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Originally posted by: Satchel
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
Course it could be wrong. That is part of what makes an opinion an opinion. I never made a claim of absolute proof. That is what I am trying to get you fools to understand.
Originally posted by: shadow9d9
NO OPINION CAN BE DISCREDITED.
:confused:

Do you not know what the word "could" mean?

It could be wrong, but you can't prove it wrong, hence discredit it. It remains someone's opinion. Feel free to disagree, but you can't disprove that the credit is a con any more than I can prove it. Therefore it must remain an opinion.

Seriously, have you not encountered opinions in your existence?

Sleep now, I mean it.


well, it depends on your definition of the word "is" :)
 

RapidSnail

Diamond Member
Apr 28, 2006
4,257
0
0
Originally posted by: zinfamous
Originally posted by: RapidSnail
Originally posted by: zinfamous
The rest of your arguments are pretty asinine: "It is impossible for the unsaved to truly understand the word of god." Clearly, Rapid Snail is just as qualified of properly translating and understanding the text as Seekermeister. I imagine they would probably disagree on many points as well....wrap that around your god-filled noodles ;)

Zin, when I said that, I was referring to the passage in Corinthians.

1 Corinthians 2:14

But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

Clearly those are not my words, neither my interpretation.


it's not an interpretation? define "natural man," and define "discern." you can't without interpreting what the meaning of these words would have been 2000+ years ago. esp "discern" being a modern translation of some word...I can only imagine it's a stretch from the Hebrew.

Honestly, I really don't have time to play philosopher and lexiconographer. I'll just tell you that my final authority is the KJV, not the Hebrew or Greek. The KJV is the perfect [pure], preserved word of God, as I believe. It is a perfect translation. If you wish to usurp your authority over the brilliant translators of the 1600's, be my guest; but do not think that I will strongly value your interpretation over their genius. And the words you wish definitions for can be found in a dictionary, and they will correspond with what I have said. Thank you.

Psalm 12:6

The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.


Proverbs 30:5

Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,994
31,558
146
Originally posted by: Crono
To all the Christians who believe in evolution or think it could possibly co-exist with the theory of evolution:

Don't compare the Bible to evolution to see how evolution fits in with the Bible , but rather compare evolution to the Bible and see if what evolution claims has any truth as compared to the absolute truth of the Bible. Always compare what man says to what God says, and not the other way around. The knowledge of man is fallible and incomplete, whereas the knowledge of God is not.

Evolution and the Bible are not compatible. Evolution says that man evolved over millions of years. The Bible, however, gives the entire lineage of man from Adam to Jesus, and even with the length of life being several hundred years for early man after the fall, the entire history of man is not more than several thousand years (~ 6,000 years) according to scripture. What God says in Genesis is that He created the entire world in 6 days, and on the 7th day He rested (by resting, He gave the nation of Israel the Sabbath day principle of 6 days of work, 7th day to rest- He did not want man to work for 6 million years, and rest on the 7th million). The Hebrew word there for day ("yowm") can mean period of time, but from the context and from the way it is used in other passages of scripture, it is clear that when the Bible says "day" it is referring to a single day-night period of time.

And like others have pointed out, it does not make sense for there to be such a gap between days, especially because of the interdependence of life (which most likely, even before the fall and death, was there). There is no reason to interpret either from Genesis 1, nor from other passages of scripture, that the earth was created in anything other than 6 days; don't try to accommodate evolution by adding to scripture or subjecting it to private interpretation.

despite his lunacy, Cronos is correct. He clearly points out the irrelevence of this entire debate.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,994
31,558
146
Originally posted by: RapidSnail
Originally posted by: zinfamous
Originally posted by: RapidSnail
Originally posted by: zinfamous
The rest of your arguments are pretty asinine: "It is impossible for the unsaved to truly understand the word of god." Clearly, Rapid Snail is just as qualified of properly translating and understanding the text as Seekermeister. I imagine they would probably disagree on many points as well....wrap that around your god-filled noodles ;)

Zin, when I said that, I was referring to the passage in Corinthians.

1 Corinthians 2:14

But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

Clearly those are not my words, neither my interpretation.


it's not an interpretation? define "natural man," and define "discern." you can't without interpreting what the meaning of these words would have been 2000+ years ago. esp "discern" being a modern translation of some word...I can only imagine it's a stretch from the Hebrew.

Honestly, I really don't have time to play philosopher and lexiconographer. I'll just tell you that my final authority is the KJV, not the Hebrew or Greek. The KJV is the perfect [pure], preserved word of God, as I believe. It is a perfect translation. If you wish to usurp your authority over the brilliant translators of the 1600's, be my guest; but do not think that I will strongly value your interpretation over their genius. And the words you wish definitions for can be found in a dictionary, and they will correspond with what I have said. Thank you.

Psalm 12:6

The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.


Proverbs 30:5

Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.


What makes the KJV the perfect, pure preserved word of God? The closest to pure that we can ever get is the original hebrew, and the scrolls written in aramaic. The KJV is a translation. therefore, it will always be a secondary source of the text. your logic can't be so perverted that you would deny even this?

What makes it pure and perfect? The council that "adopted" this to be accepted as pure?
(off topic, I know, and this isn't an attack of any sort, but...>) I hope you don't have a problem with homosexuality, as Mr James himself was a latent queen. I only mention this because fundamental tendancies towards literal "truth" are often equated with homophobia and general bigotry. Again, I am not accusing you of such, just trying to burst your bubble a bit if that is the case ;)
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,994
31,558
146
Originally posted by: RapidSnail
Originally posted by: zinfamous
Originally posted by: RapidSnail
Originally posted by: zinfamous
The rest of your arguments are pretty asinine: "It is impossible for the unsaved to truly understand the word of god." Clearly, Rapid Snail is just as qualified of properly translating and understanding the text as Seekermeister. I imagine they would probably disagree on many points as well....wrap that around your god-filled noodles ;)

Zin, when I said that, I was referring to the passage in Corinthians.

1 Corinthians 2:14

But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

Clearly those are not my words, neither my interpretation.


it's not an interpretation? define "natural man," and define "discern." you can't without interpreting what the meaning of these words would have been 2000+ years ago. esp "discern" being a modern translation of some word...I can only imagine it's a stretch from the Hebrew.

Honestly, I really don't have time to play philosopher and lexiconographer. I'll just tell you that my final authority is the KJV, not the Hebrew or Greek. The KJV is the perfect [pure], preserved word of God, as I believe. It is a perfect translation. If you wish to usurp your authority over the brilliant translators of the 1600's, be my guest; but do not think that I will strongly value your interpretation over their genius. And the words you wish definitions for can be found in a dictionary, and they will correspond with what I have said. Thank you.

Psalm 12:6

The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.


Proverbs 30:5

Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.

The OED perhaps? are you aware of it, and what kind of "dictionary" it is? I don't currently have access to a full set, but it is the only dictionary that will provide this information (concerning the English translation). Again, I'm not looking for definitions of words that you will find in Webster's or Oxford (definitions that are highly irrelevent to this discussion), but definitions of words as they were used at the time of translation. As for finding the definitions of the words in Hebrew, that were translated into the English language...no, I don't know where to find those. I'm not a linguist. But I assure you, they will not be found in a "dictionary."
 

engineereeyore

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Jul 23, 2005
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Originally posted by: zinfamous
(off topic, I know, and this isn't an attack of any sort, but...>) I hope you don't have a problem with homosexuality, as Mr James himself was a latent queen. I only mention this because fundamental tendancies towards literal "truth" are often equated with homophobia and general bigotry. Again, I am not accusing you of such, just trying to burst your bubble a bit if that is the case ;)

How does King James' sexual orientation have any bearing on the Bible? He simply commissioned the translation. He didn't write it. So I'm not sure what that has to do with anything.
 

So

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Jul 2, 2001
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How did quoting the bible get into this thread? I know Christians are smart enough not to think that they will sway anyone with arguments from the bible, since no scientist is going to take a book as a valid reason to accept an argument.

:confused:
 

RapidSnail

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Apr 28, 2006
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Originally posted by: zinfamous
What makes the KJV the perfect, pure preserved word of God? The closest to pure that we can ever get is the original hebrew, and the scrolls written in aramaic. The KJV is a translation. therefore, it will always be a secondary source of the text. your logic can't be so perverted that you would deny even this?

Zin, all that matters to me is that God said he would preserve his word forever, and in unadulterated form. I certainly believe that the God who has the capacity to create the universe would also be able to guide the human translators to keep his promise.

What makes it pure and perfect? The council that "adopted" this to be accepted as pure?
(off topic, I know, and this isn't an attack of any sort, but...>) I hope you don't have a problem with homosexuality, as Mr James himself was a latent queen. I only mention this because fundamental tendancies towards literal "truth" are often equated with homophobia and general bigotry. Again, I am not accusing you of such, just trying to burst your bubble a bit if that is the case ;)

No, what makes it perfect is God's promise to man that he would preserve his word. It doesn't matter if the Bible was ratified by the church of Satan, all that matters is that he said he would preserve it and keep his vow. In God's workings, the means do not matter, only the end result.

As for the claim of homosexuality, it seems that you do not realize that the accusations of the King's sexual orientation were made by his most vile haters wishing to undermine him and his legacy. Either way, the sexuality of the King has absolutely nothing to do with the integrity of the translation.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
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Originally posted by: engineereeyore
Originally posted by: zinfamous
(off topic, I know, and this isn't an attack of any sort, but...>) I hope you don't have a problem with homosexuality, as Mr James himself was a latent queen. I only mention this because fundamental tendancies towards literal "truth" are often equated with homophobia and general bigotry. Again, I am not accusing you of such, just trying to burst your bubble a bit if that is the case ;)

How does King James' sexual orientation have any bearing on the Bible? He simply commissioned the translation. He didn't write it. So I'm not sure what that has to do with anything.


I mention it, because many fundamentalists who use the Bible to support their anti-homosexuality stances, point to the King James version as the end-all be-all of the debate. I find it blissfully ironic that the man who commisioned the translation was in fact, homosexual. It's also another way to discredit the infallibility of such translations.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
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Originally posted by: So
How did quoting the bible get into this thread? I know Christians are smart enough not to think that they will sway anyone with arguments from the bible, since no scientist is going to take a book as a valid reason to accept an argument.

:confused:


Again, they aren't capable of accepting other versions of truth. the book tells them truth...case closed.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
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Originally posted by: RapidSnail
Originally posted by: zinfamous
What makes the KJV the perfect, pure preserved word of God? The closest to pure that we can ever get is the original hebrew, and the scrolls written in aramaic. The KJV is a translation. therefore, it will always be a secondary source of the text. your logic can't be so perverted that you would deny even this?

Zin, all that matters to me is that God said he would preserve his word forever, and in unadulterated form. I certainly believe that the God who has the capacity to create the universe would also be able to guide the human translators to keep his promise.

What makes it pure and perfect? The council that "adopted" this to be accepted as pure?
(off topic, I know, and this isn't an attack of any sort, but...>) I hope you don't have a problem with homosexuality, as Mr James himself was a latent queen. I only mention this because fundamental tendancies towards literal "truth" are often equated with homophobia and general bigotry. Again, I am not accusing you of such, just trying to burst your bubble a bit if that is the case ;)

No, what makes it perfect is God's promise to man that he would preserve his word. It doesn't matter if the Bible was ratified by the church of Satan, all that matters is that he said he would preserve it and keep his vow. In God's workings, the means do not matter, only the end result.

As for the claim of homosexuality, it seems that you do not realize that the accusations of the King's sexual orientation were made by his most vile haters wishing to undermine him and his legacy. Either way, the sexuality of the King has absolutely nothing to do with the integrity of the translation.


fair enough (see bolded), but historians disagree. might I hazard a guess towards where you receive your information?