The word has a well-established meaning provided by the context of the other 600+ times it appears in the bible describing a physical death. Can you provide another example where the same word is used to describe this alleged "spiritual death"?Originally posted by: engineereeyore
LOL. Whatever man. All that link does is prove Adam would die. I makes absolutely no reference to what type of death it would be. It doesn't even use the word 'body' or 'physical', so please feel free to keep trying.
You body sure is. Clearly that is what the passage was written to describe, just as the word is used so many other times to describe the same.Yes, it is. You've not provided an iota of sound reasoning to believe that we should interpret the usage of that word any differently than it is used the other 600+ times in the Bible.
I have, you're just not willing to accept it. Since you 'blah blah blah' out my last comment due to the fact you had no answer to my comments, I'll ask you again. When you 'die', are you really dead and cease to exist?
How hard is it to understand that the word means precisely what it says on its face? Nice well-poisoning, though.If you answer no, then you don't have a foot to stand on in this argument. If you answer yes, you have absolutely no understanding of the Bible and thus have no purpose in this discussion.
It'll end when you realize that you're clinging to nothing but your own pride.Feel free to try to answer, or just coward out again and use 'blah blah blah'. Or you could just follow your own comment and end this ridiculous discussion.
But that isn't the case in this instance. You've obviously committed yourself to once conclusion despite the dearth of contravening evidence.All you can do is beg the question by assuming from the beginning that later passages that vaguely allude to some kind of "spiritual death" compel your unusual interpretation because they must, lest there exist a contradiction.
And people like you wonder why so many scoff at Christian "reasoning."
As I already said, I don't give a rats-rip if the Bible contains a contradiction or not.
Originally posted by: Garth
The word has a well-established meaning provided by the context of the other 600+ times it appears in the bible describing a physical death. Can you provide another example where the same word is used to describe this alleged "spiritual death"?
Here's a list of the 28 times it appears in Leviticus.
Which case of those describes, not a physical death, but this alleged "spiritual death"?
When the law instructs the Jews to have someone "put to death" for his transgressions, would you have us believe that they were supposed to cause the "spiritual death" of that person? How would that work?
It is obvious that you are demanding a highly unusual interpretation of the word for the sole purpose of avoiding the blatant contradiction. How utterly moronic.
You body sure is. Clearly that is what the passage was written to describe, just as the word is used so many other times to describe the same.
How hard is it to understand that the word means precisely what it says on its face? Nice well-poisoning, though.
It'll end when you realize that you're clinging to nothing but your own pride.
But that isn't the case in this instance. You've obviously committed yourself to once conclusion despite the dearth of contravening evidence.
Obviously you are projecting.Originally posted by: engineereeyore
Oh my gosh. You really are thick, aren't you?
I'm not claiming that the word was mistranslated. Who's posts have you been reading?No one, absolutely no one, has claimed that the verse was not translated properly, which is the absolutely only thing that link you provided shows. That is it. All the definitions say is the the word translates to die. We no kidding! That's what the verse says too! Imagine that!
If you want some examples, here. [L=fficial&client=firefox-a">Spiritual Death.]http://www.google.com/search?q=spiritual+death&ie=utf-8&oe=utf-8&rls=org.mozilla:en-US[/quote]
Of course, you wouldn't have any citations [b]from the Bible[/b]. I wonder why that is.
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If I had claimed that there was only one type of death, that question would make sense. Since I didn't, that question is stupid. If you're not capable of determining which of the two they meant by the context of the verse and those that followed, you need some help.[/quote]
But the context clearly shows that the passage promised a physical death for Adam on that day.
[quote]
By the way, no other human can inflict spiritual death upon you. That is something only you can do.[/quote]
So when Leviticus instructs the Jews to cause "[i]twm[/i]" to trangressors of the law, it doesn't mean to cause a "spiritual death" but a physical one. That is exactly my point. The Genesis passage promised a physical death likewise, but you are insisting that the VERY SAME WORD means something totally different and unique in that ONE particular instance that stands in contradiction to the other 600+ times it is used in the rest of the Bible.
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[quote]
It is obvious that you are demanding a highly unusual interpretation of the word for the sole purpose of avoiding the blatant contradiction. How utterly moronic.[/quote]
The only thing moronic is your insistence that I somehow care if the Bible contains a contradiction.[/quote]
Obviously you care about this particular contradiction, so it doesn't matter what you think about the rest.
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As you can see from the link provided, spiritual death is not some new idea. Look it up on wiki, you'll find the same thing.[/quote]
I know it isn't a new idea, but you've given us no reason to believe it is a [b]Biblical[/b] idea, nor that the passage in Genesis speaks of a "spiritual death" despite the fact that it uses the very word which is consistently used to describe a physical death in EVERY OTHER INSTANCE OF ITS USAGE IN THE BIBLE.
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Matter of fact, if I was looking for a contradiction in the realm of spiritual death, I'd use this verse instead of the ones you used. They're much better.
Matt 8:22 But Jesus said unto him, Follow me; [b]and let the dead bury their dead[/b].
How can the physically dead bury the physically dead? Since you believe every use of dead means physical, you answer the question.[/quote]
I never said that every use of dead means physically dead. Please learn some reading comprehension. I said that every use of "[i]twm[/i]" means physically dead, but the Gospels weren't written in Hebrew, genius.
[quote]
[quote]
You body sure is. Clearly that is what the passage was written to describe, just as the word is used so many other times to describe the same.[/quote]
You really are interesting. Clearly, as Adam still lived after that time, that's NOT what is meant. [/quote]
A more textbook case of affirming the consequent could not be had. Who do you expect to convince with such shoddy and transparent reasoning?
[quote]
Besides genius, your still not answering the question. Who gives a rip if the body is dead. I didn't ask that. I asked if the person is dead. Either they are or they aren't. Your interpretation says they must be, body, spirit, and all. Then I'd love to see you justify that one with the Bible.[/quote]
None of that is relevant to the contradiction in the Bible.
{snip}
Originally posted by: Garth
Obviously you are projecting.
I'm not claiming that the word was mistranslated. Who's posts have you been reading?
Of course, you wouldn't have any citations from the Bible. I wonder why that is.
But the context clearly shows that the passage promised a physical death for Adam on that day.
So when Leviticus instructs the Jews to cause "twm" to trangressors of the law, it doesn't mean to cause a "spiritual death" but a physical one. That is exactly my point. The Genesis passage promised a physical death likewise, but you are insisting that the VERY SAME WORD means something totally different and unique in that ONE particular instance that stands in contradiction to the other 600+ times it is used in the rest of the Bible.
Obviously you care about this particular contradiction, so it doesn't matter what you think about the rest.
I know it isn't a new idea, but you've given us no reason to believe it is a Biblical idea, nor that the passage in Genesis speaks of a "spiritual death" despite the fact that it uses the very word which is consistently used to describe a physical death in EVERY OTHER INSTANCE OF ITS USAGE IN THE BIBLE.
I never said that every use of dead means physically dead. Please learn some reading comprehension. I said that every use of "twm" means physically dead, but the Gospels weren't written in Hebrew, genius.
A more textbook case of affirming the consequent could not be had. Who do you expect to convince with such shoddy and transparent reasoning?
None of that is relevant to the contradiction in the Bible.
