Was talking with a Muslim friend today about politics (yeah, we're dorks
) and we were going back and forth with American injustice toward Muslims/unfounded Muslim hate toward America. Then, almost from nowhere, she says:
"Anything you hear about goings on in Muslim countries is skewed because Jews control the media"
Well that was unexpected. My reply was to say:
"Uhhh. Before I ask the implications of that, what's your proof?"
Her:
"I need none, it's just common knowledge."
And how could I possibly argue with common knowledge? What bothers me about it is that it sounds like total rhetoric...like one item on a big laundry list that US/Israel-haters spout off.
Anyhow, I'm sure many of you are more informed than she or I. What is the proof (or disproof) of her statement? Also, what are the implications of it?
"Anything you hear about goings on in Muslim countries is skewed because Jews control the media"
Well that was unexpected. My reply was to say:
"Uhhh. Before I ask the implications of that, what's your proof?"
Her:
"I need none, it's just common knowledge."
And how could I possibly argue with common knowledge? What bothers me about it is that it sounds like total rhetoric...like one item on a big laundry list that US/Israel-haters spout off.
Anyhow, I'm sure many of you are more informed than she or I. What is the proof (or disproof) of her statement? Also, what are the implications of it?
