:) More Math. Worse than .9999...=1

[Random Variable]

All you're saying is that the integral of f(x) from a to a is zero (i.e. the area under a point is zero).

 

[ActuaryTm]

Originally posted by: HomeBrewerDude
Or to make this a little more personal, where A is the thread proving successful and popular, and B being a thread started by DrPizza

P(A|B) = 0

I stand corrected.

 

[silverpig]

Originally posted by: Vespasian
All you're saying is that the integral of f(x) from a to a is zero (i.e. the area under a point is zero).

Nope. The area under an infinite number of points is zero. The probability is zero for every rational, not just a single one.

 

[Sheepathon]

omg i just had carne asada fries and root beer in a large glass mug, omg it was sooooo good

 

[ribbon13]

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[Schadenfreude]

Originally posted by: Sheepathon
omg i just had carne asada fries and root beer in a large glass mug, omg it was sooooo good

Omg I'm so hungry now! Now I just have to like, go get something to eat or whatever!

 

[Random Variable]

Originally posted by: silverpig

Originally posted by: Vespasian
All you're saying is that the integral of f(x) from a to a is zero (i.e. the area under a point is zero).

Nope. The area under an infinite number of points is zero. The probability is zero for every rational, not just a single one.

Excuse me? An infinite number of points make up a curve, and the area under a curve is not zero.

EDIT: Now I see what your'e saying. The "interval" of rational numbers between 0 and 5 is discontinous.

 

[3chordcharlie]

There's no '50%' when you're dealing with an infinite number of possible outcomes.

 

[Gibson486]

This have to do with 1/a very big number is called 0 because it is so small?

 

[Random Variable]

Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
There's no '50%' when you're dealing with an infinite number of possible outcomes.

You don't know what you're talking about. When dealing with a continuous probability distribution function, the probabilty of randomly selecting any specific value is zero. But the probability of randomly selecting a value that falls within some interval is not zero. In other words, the area under f(x) from a to b won't be zero unless a=b.

 

[oboeguy]

DrPizza, you should be commended for creating much no0bish squirming in this thread. :thumbsup:

(<-- sits back to watch some more and is thankful for the math major in college)

 

[3chordcharlie]

Originally posted by: Vespasian

Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
There's no '50%' when you're dealing with an infinite number of possible outcomes.

You don't know what you're talking about. When dealing with a continuous probability distribution function, the probabilty of randomly selecting any specific value is zero. But the probability of randomly selecting a value that falls within some interval is not zero. In other words, the area under f(x) from a to b won't be zero unless a=b.

Gee thanks for the refresher:disgust:

My statement was referring to the post that claimed 50% (and - edit - which now seems to have been edited), and had nothing to do with intervals.

 

[The Green Bean]

the probability is undefined but more than zero...

 

[desteffy]

of course. Despite their density on the real line the rationals have measure zero!

 

[chuckywang]

The probability is zero.

 

[Random Variable]

Saying that P(A)=0 is not the same thing as saying that event A cannot occur.