Originally posted by: zinfamous
Originally posted by: randumb
Originally posted by: Parasitic
Originally posted by: randumb
True. If the Laplace transform exists, you can calculate the moments of the pdf function as the derivatives.
Let X be a nonnegative random variable and F(s) be the Laplace transform of the pdf function. Then
F'(s)=d/ds E[e^(-sX)]=E[-Xe^(-sX)]
...
F^(n)(s)=d^n/ds^n E[e^(-sX)]=E[(-X)^n e^(-sX)]
Evaluating at s=0 yields
E[X]=-F'(0)
E[X^2]=+F''(0)
...
E[X^n]=(-1)^n F^(n)(0)
Why would you feed that troll? DVK916's got more chins than # of brain lobes.
So that he hopefully stops posting threads about statistics every day.
Right...it only encourages him. He clearly hasn't learned a damn thing form his classes, b/c he simply tries to get ATOT to do all of his work for him. If you keep helping him out, he'll keep asking. Just ignore the BS, whether or not you want to flex your stats pene and post your knowledge
😉