So the elected legislature and governor who passed the law twice don't express the will of the voters?
So let me reiterate my question from earlier. Leaving aside discussion about whether it's good policy, does a state which created the means to vote straight ticket also have the right to remove this ability or is it a one-way thing that can't be undone? And if so, why? Also, using the same logic you used to answer this question, should other states then be obliged to create a similar 'service' for voters?
Are you seriously posing these questions? They were in control each time now.
Michigan Republicans have had the Governor seat for 117 out of the last 160 years.
Michigan Republicans have had the Senate for 142 out of the last 160 years.
Michigan Republicans have had the House for 122 of the last 160.
How can you ask if they are expressing the will of the voters by sheer virtue that they were/are in power when both times they tried to eliminate this they were stopped via referendum WHILE in power. Clearly they weren't expressing the will of the voters or it would have been voted up. Especially considering In 2014, in Oakland County, 109,711 people voted a straight Democratic ticket while 108,211 voted a straight Republican ticket.
The GOP lawmakers can go fuck themselves.
But knowing it would lose, a third time, to subvert democracy, instead of asking the voters again, they just said fuck it, no more straight party voting and while we are at it, you can never vote this away.
What other states do is irrelevant. This is Michigan and a Michigan state'e rights issue and we have spoken on this repeatedly now.
As per usual, this is nothing short of a ploy to make the already long lines in urban polling stations even longer and to dissuade voting. EOS