Let's say Company A(who bought another company) uses Point of Sale Software from Company B(who was recently bought). Company A received the software when they bought a company and did NOT assume any debt. The company they purchased had been through bankruptcy, but any debt was not assumed at all. Company B was the creator of the software that was being used by Company A. Another Company comes in and buys Company B. After doing so they want payment from the defunct old Company(matter was already settled). They've used threats and harassment, but today they dialed into a server and killed the program. I'm not sure why/how they got access, but it knocked down the POS network and left Company A unable to transact business. Company A had 1000's of visitors and HAD to have the POS up and running or they would lose thousands if not tens of thousands of dollars.
I know it is very confusing, but please bare with me. If the prior debt was from another Company, and wasn't assumed, then how can they say Company A is liable? Not only that, but Company B was FINE with things until bought out by another company. Shouldn't they have to get a court order to do this? They can't just reinstate old settled charges on a Company just because they bought another Company and are greedy.
I know it is very confusing, but please bare with me. If the prior debt was from another Company, and wasn't assumed, then how can they say Company A is liable? Not only that, but Company B was FINE with things until bought out by another company. Shouldn't they have to get a court order to do this? They can't just reinstate old settled charges on a Company just because they bought another Company and are greedy.