is there some physical property that decreases proportional to distance^3

Loki726

Senior member
Dec 27, 2003
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I think your thinking of an equation that is multplied by a regular vector, not a unit vector. For example if R is a vector, and r is a unit vector along R, the following equations are the same:

r/|R|^2 = R/|R|^3
 

silverpig

Lifer
Jul 29, 2001
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The reason why is because flux is conserved through concentric shells. The ratio of the areas of the shells is 4*pi*R1^2 / 4*pi*R2^2. It's the flux through the area, and the area goes as r^2. That's why.

For something to go down as 1/r^3 you'd need to have either

a) a 4d field
b) some kind of attenuation that goes as 1/r (ie radiation from a star if the star is in a uniform gas cloud that absorbs light as 1/r)
 

bobsmith1492

Diamond Member
Feb 21, 2004
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Moments or second moments of inertia have interestingly cubed/quarted properties; I think there is a pi^3 and some sort of distance^4 in it, but it's been a while since statics class...
 

DrPizza

Administrator Elite Member Goat Whisperer
Mar 5, 2001
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Originally posted by: msparish
Tidal forces are proportional to 1/r^3

I had quickly googled the other day and saw that. However, there was only one link related to 1/r^3. Also, I would think that as tides are caused by gravitational forces, that it would be 1/r^2 and the only site I see with the former is wrong.
 

msparish

Senior member
Aug 27, 2003
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Originally posted by: DrPizza
Originally posted by: msparish
Tidal forces are proportional to 1/r^3

I had quickly googled the other day and saw that. However, there was only one link related to 1/r^3. Also, I would think that as tides are caused by gravitational forces, that it would be 1/r^2 and the only site I see with the former is wrong.

Decent explanation.
A simple explanation is to consider what causes the tides on earth: the moon. Despite the sun having a larger gravitational force on the earth, the dependence on r^3 causes the moon to be the body that causes tides.
 

DrPizza

Administrator Elite Member Goat Whisperer
Mar 5, 2001
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Originally posted by: msparish
Originally posted by: DrPizza
Originally posted by: msparish
Tidal forces are proportional to 1/r^3

I had quickly googled the other day and saw that. However, there was only one link related to 1/r^3. Also, I would think that as tides are caused by gravitational forces, that it would be 1/r^2 and the only site I see with the former is wrong.

Decent explanation.
A simple explanation is to consider what causes the tides on earth: the moon. Despite the sun having a larger gravitational force on the earth, the dependence on r^3 causes the moon to be the body that causes tides.


thank you.