My math teacher from last year said that there is a number that is infinately larger than infinity called: c. Is this true, I mean, this is mind boggling to say the least.
Is there really a number larger than infinity?
- Thread starter CallTheFBI
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dabuddha
Lifer
- Apr 10, 2000
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dang beat me to it
infinity to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power to the infinity power
HendrixFan
Diamond Member
- Oct 18, 2001
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Infinity isnt a "number". It is to say that you have an infinite set of numbers, that it is neverending.
And yes there are proofs that you can have a "larger" infinity, because the numbers dont map 1-1, but both are infinite.
And yes there are proofs that you can have a "larger" infinity, because the numbers dont map 1-1, but both are infinite.
No, it actually isn't. Infinity + 1 = Infinity. Infinity - Infinity is actually an inderterminate form though which means it could equal anything. You learn about this when you study limits in Calculus 1.
No, I didn't berate him, I was merely trying to correct his statement in case he really did think it was true.
There is no real number that is larger than infinity, as R is the set (-infinity, +infinity)
Thus the magnitude of all real numbers is strictly less than infinity.
Thus the magnitude of all real numbers is strictly less than infinity.
I have a question for the calculus gods. On my exam this morning, I had to decide whether the square root of infinity was either closer to infiniti itself or closer to zero, and thus divergent or convergent respectively. I chose infiniti, reasoning that inf. * inf. still equals infiniti. Anyone know for sure?
HendrixFan
Diamond Member
- Oct 18, 2001
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He's right. The reason being that if you square any number, it wont give you infinity. It will be large, but not infinite. The only way to square a number and get infinity as an answer would be to sqaure infinity.
f(x) = x^2;
g(x) = x^4;
the limit as x->infinity of f(x) is infinity. The limit as x->infinity of g(x) is infinity. However, note that g(x) is always greater than f(x), so how can they both have the same limit?
g(x) approaches a larger infinity than f(x) does. This can happen because infinity isn't a number, but more of an abstract concept of open-endedness.
g(x) = x^4;
the limit as x->infinity of f(x) is infinity. The limit as x->infinity of g(x) is infinity. However, note that g(x) is always greater than f(x), so how can they both have the same limit?
g(x) approaches a larger infinity than f(x) does. This can happen because infinity isn't a number, but more of an abstract concept of open-endedness.
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