do you think the separation was more race-based (rather than religion-based)? i do, but i was wondering what you thought. i think it was because of the legislation being similar to south african legislation (the conquest came first and then the legislation came later) involved and because a majority of the protestant irish are actually mitochondrial outliers of modern europeans as were the dutch who conquered south africa while the roman irish cluster in perfectly with most modern europeans.
while i dont think it was a pure apartheid State (i.e., pure apartheid States actually dont exist, because there will be a ruling caste that is culturally/religiously different but mitochondrially identical to another group that will be the 2nd class, while the mitochondrial opposite of the ruling class and the second class will be the bottom 2 castes, the latter being mitochondrially very similar to each other but culturally different from each other) because the presbyterian (scots irish) were discriminated against by the anglo-irish but either way the Roman Irish were at the bottom while the anglo irish were the top.
while i dont think it was a pure apartheid State (i.e., pure apartheid States actually dont exist, because there will be a ruling caste that is culturally/religiously different but mitochondrially identical to another group that will be the 2nd class, while the mitochondrial opposite of the ruling class and the second class will be the bottom 2 castes, the latter being mitochondrially very similar to each other but culturally different from each other) because the presbyterian (scots irish) were discriminated against by the anglo-irish but either way the Roman Irish were at the bottom while the anglo irish were the top.
