Infinity to the 0 power, or Zero to the power infinity

JEDI

Lifer
Sep 25, 2001
29,391
2,737
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What do you get?

i say 1 and 0, respectively.

anything to the 0 power is 1.

0 x anything = 0.

Right/wrong?
 

deftron

Lifer
Nov 17, 2000
10,868
1
0
0 times anything is 0
Anything times 0 is 0
Anything to the 0 power is 1




Go back to kindygarden




 

EyeMWing

Banned
Jun 13, 2003
15,670
1
0
Originally posted by: deftron
0 times anything is 0
Anything times 0 is 0


Go back to kindygarden

0^inf, or 0*0*0*0*0... is indeed 0.
inf^0 has nothing to do with multiplying anything times 0. It's 1 by definition.

Go back to the 6th grade.
 

Bv3

Senior member
Mar 9, 2000
802
0
0
Infinity is not a number so "Zero to the power infinity" is a nonsensical statement and has no answer. It's like asking "What do you get if you draw a four-sided triangle?" or "What happens when an unstoppable force meets an immovable object?"
 

deftron

Lifer
Nov 17, 2000
10,868
1
0
Originally posted by: EyeMWing
Originally posted by: deftron
0 times anything is 0
Anything times 0 is 0


Go back to kindygarden

0^inf, or 0*0*0*0*0... is indeed 0.
inf^0 has nothing to do with multiplying anything times 0. It's 1 by definition.

Go back to the 6th grade.

Why'd you delete a line out?
 

chuckywang

Lifer
Jan 12, 2004
20,133
1
0
Originally posted by: EyeMWing
Originally posted by: deftron
0 times anything is 0
Anything times 0 is 0


Go back to kindygarden

0^inf, or 0*0*0*0*0... is indeed 0.
inf^0 has nothing to do with multiplying anything times 0. It's 1 by definition.

Go back to the 6th grade.

You're right about 0^inf always being 0, but inf^0 is not always 1.

Consider (2^n)^(1/n) as n->infinity.

It converges to 2.
 

EyeMWing

Banned
Jun 13, 2003
15,670
1
0
Originally posted by: chuckywang
Originally posted by: EyeMWing
Originally posted by: deftron
0 times anything is 0
Anything times 0 is 0


Go back to kindygarden

0^inf, or 0*0*0*0*0... is indeed 0.
inf^0 has nothing to do with multiplying anything times 0. It's 1 by definition.

Go back to the 6th grade.

You're right about 0^inf always being 0, but inf^0 is not always 1.

Consider (2^n)^(1/n) as n->infinity.

It converges to 2.

Oh, now I remember. We actually had a 3-day argument about this in my calc class. It was a BEAUTIFUL time killer. I believe we never actually reconciled the differences between the definition and the limits.
 

chuckywang

Lifer
Jan 12, 2004
20,133
1
0
Originally posted by: EyeMWing
Originally posted by: chuckywang
Originally posted by: EyeMWing
Originally posted by: deftron
0 times anything is 0
Anything times 0 is 0


Go back to kindygarden

0^inf, or 0*0*0*0*0... is indeed 0.
inf^0 has nothing to do with multiplying anything times 0. It's 1 by definition.

Go back to the 6th grade.

You're right about 0^inf always being 0, but inf^0 is not always 1.

Consider (2^n)^(1/n) as n->infinity.

It converges to 2.

Oh, now I remember. We actually had a 3-day argument about this in my calc class. It was a BEAUTIFUL time killer. I believe we never actually reconciled the differences between the definition and the limits.

There's really no argument. inf^0 is one of the seven indeterminate forms.
 

eLiu

Diamond Member
Jun 4, 2001
6,407
1
0
Originally posted by: EyeMWing
Originally posted by: deftron
0 times anything is 0
Anything times 0 is 0


Go back to kindygarden

0^inf, or 0*0*0*0*0... is indeed 0.
inf^0 has nothing to do with multiplying anything times 0. It's 1 by definition.

Go back to the 6th grade.

infinity is not a number...it's a concept. In analysis it exists in limit form only (or more rigorously, as the supremum of the reals). Wander in to complex #s (and beyond) and infinity becomes an even more fuzzy idea.

Anyway...inf^0 in the limit can be ANYTHING.

Here:
lim x->inf of exp(A*x)^(1/x).
= lim x->inf of exp(1/x * ln(exp(A*x))
= lim x->inf of exp(A).
= exp(A).

Now...A can be any real number, so we can achieve any positive real number in this way (stick a negative sign out front to hit any negative real #). As A->-infinity, the above limit goes to 0.

edit: the above argument is in no way rigorous but it illustrates the point

also, 0^inf is indeed 0. (at least in the real# system)