EightySix Four Diamond Member Jul 17, 2004 5,122 52 91 Oct 24, 2007 #1 Can anyone help me come up with a reasonable explanation (mathematically of course) as to why the change of base formula for logarithms works? Thanks in advance
Can anyone help me come up with a reasonable explanation (mathematically of course) as to why the change of base formula for logarithms works? Thanks in advance
C chuckywang Lifer Jan 12, 2004 20,133 1 0 Oct 24, 2007 #2 Let x = log a (b) / log a (c) Then x*log a (c) = log a (b) log a (c^x) = log a (b) c^x = b x = log c (b)
Let x = log a (b) / log a (c) Then x*log a (c) = log a (b) log a (c^x) = log a (b) c^x = b x = log c (b)