I was reading on a joke site how to prove that 2 = 1. After looking at the formula and picking through it, I found the divide by zero error then changed the formula does there is no divide by zero error.
first off, a ---> b
please keep in mind that when I put =, it doesn't mean that they are equal but it means they are pretty damn close to equal. It's like when you do derivatives the long way (remember [f(x) - f(a)]/(x - a))
a - b = 0
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
(a + b) * (a - b) = b * (a - b)
a + b = b
b + b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
What's wrong?
first off, a ---> b
please keep in mind that when I put =, it doesn't mean that they are equal but it means they are pretty damn close to equal. It's like when you do derivatives the long way (remember [f(x) - f(a)]/(x - a))
a - b = 0
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
(a + b) * (a - b) = b * (a - b)
a + b = b
b + b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
What's wrong?