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HOW DOES HE GET SO LUCKY?!

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Bad beat and bad play aren't mutually exclusive. you can have both. I love how everyone on here thinks they are a poker expert but post a lot of bad advice.

Anyways, its not a beat worth posting about. Taking a runner runner 1 outer and losing over $1k, then you can start calling bad beat.
 
How do you have a runner runner one outer?

Bad beats start at quads over aces full. Bad beats involve beating hands which are statistically very improbable to be beaten, and have nothing to do with bad play.
 
Originally posted by: SphinxnihpS
How do you have a runner runner one outer?

Bad beats start at quads over aces full. Bad beats involve beating hands which are statistically very improbable to be beaten, and have nothing to do with bad play.

I had 88, flop was 885, he had KK, get it all in on the flop. turn comes K, river comes K. so two outer followed by one outer technically.

actually looking at the OP's action in the hand. He played optimally. He got villain to put in money when villain was behind preflop. He got villain to get his money all in postflop with bad odds. If OP had knew villain had 76, obviously he would have wanted to get all in with villain on the flop and not have villain fold. So technically you could say OP played pretty well at least postflop. I mean you do understand that on the flop, OP wants villain to get all in with him with 76 right? That despite what happened this time (the suckout) , getting all in is preferable to betting the flop and villain folding.

But yes you can have bad play and bad beat. in OP's hand you could say him not raising enough preflop was badplay but getting sucked out on after getting all in on the flop was a bad beat.
 
Originally posted by: amoeba
Originally posted by: SphinxnihpS
How do you have a runner runner one outer?

Bad beats start at quads over aces full. Bad beats involve beating hands which are statistically very improbable to be beaten, and have nothing to do with bad play.

I had 88, flop was 885, he had KK, get it all in on the flop. turn comes K, river comes K. so two outer followed by one outer technically.

actually looking at the OP's action in the hand. He played optimally. He got villain to put in money when villain was behind preflop. He got villain to get his money all in postflop with bad odds. If OP had knew villain had 76, obviously he would have wanted to get all in with villain on the flop and not have villain fold. So technically you could say OP played pretty well at least postflop. I mean you do understand that on the flop, OP wants villain to get all in with him with 76 right? That despite what happened this time (the suckout) , getting all in is preferable to betting the flop and villain folding.

But yes you can have bad play and bad beat. in OP's hand you could say him not raising enough preflop was badplay but getting sucked out on after getting all in on the flop was a bad beat.
Agreed. Other commenters are also correct that he got played back at because of his short stack. He just couldn't inflict enough damage for the villain to care about losing this pot.
 
Originally posted by: amoeba
Originally posted by: SphinxnihpS
How do you have a runner runner one outer?

Bad beats start at quads over aces full. Bad beats involve beating hands which are statistically very improbable to be beaten, and have nothing to do with bad play.

I had 88, flop was 885, he had KK, get it all in on the flop. turn comes K, river comes K. so two outer followed by one outer technically.

I got that you were badly outdrawn, I just questioned the lingo. What happened to you I would term miracle outer. Ouch!
 
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