Originally posted by: Phoenix86
Originally posted by: Brutuskend
Originally posted by: Babbles
Originally posted by: Brutuskend
Originally posted by: BlancoNino
Originally posted by: ElFenix
my question is... if the british living here don't complain, then why the faq do mexicans complain about 1836 in texas?
Probably because the British gave up on trying to invade our country while the mexicans are still trying and doing a damn good job.
You do realize of course that some parts of the US were stolen from Mexico right? Namely Texas....
Not that I condone the influx of illegal aliens....
Whoa dude, I usually like you and all that jazz but you may need to break open a history book. Texas fought it's own war of independence against Mexico - remember that Alamo thing? The Republic of Texas was it's own country for ten something years then applied to statehood in the U.S. In no way did the US go down to what was then the territory of Texas, slap some Mexican guys around and "stole" the land. After becoming a state, Texas "gave" a huge chunk of land to the US government as a sort of payment of debt from loans that the Republic of Texas incurred. Texas originally compromised something like half of what is now New Mexico, Colorado, and up into Idaho (I believe) - all of it fought for.
Yes, I am aware of all that.
I guess it boils down to what your definition of stealing is.
Hell, for that matter, the whole damn country was "Stolen" from the natives.
Or at least the majority of it was. I guess we DID "pay" for Manhattan Island. And no doubt things were offered up for other small pieces of it. But if you are pointing a gun at someones head when you offer them a pittance for something and they sell it, well most courts would still considerer it stealing.
Even by that logic the US didn't steal Texas. The people living in Texas stole it from Mexico and gave it to the US.
Originally posted by: FleshLight
Originally posted by: Phoenix86
Originally posted by: Brutuskend
Originally posted by: Babbles
Originally posted by: Brutuskend
Originally posted by: BlancoNino
Originally posted by: ElFenix
my question is... if the british living here don't complain, then why the faq do mexicans complain about 1836 in texas?
Probably because the British gave up on trying to invade our country while the mexicans are still trying and doing a damn good job.
You do realize of course that some parts of the US were stolen from Mexico right? Namely Texas....
Not that I condone the influx of illegal aliens....
Whoa dude, I usually like you and all that jazz but you may need to break open a history book. Texas fought it's own war of independence against Mexico - remember that Alamo thing? The Republic of Texas was it's own country for ten something years then applied to statehood in the U.S. In no way did the US go down to what was then the territory of Texas, slap some Mexican guys around and "stole" the land. After becoming a state, Texas "gave" a huge chunk of land to the US government as a sort of payment of debt from loans that the Republic of Texas incurred. Texas originally compromised something like half of what is now New Mexico, Colorado, and up into Idaho (I believe) - all of it fought for.
Yes, I am aware of all that.
I guess it boils down to what your definition of stealing is.
Hell, for that matter, the whole damn country was "Stolen" from the natives.
Or at least the majority of it was. I guess we DID "pay" for Manhattan Island. And no doubt things were offered up for other small pieces of it. But if you are pointing a gun at someones head when you offer them a pittance for something and they sell it, well most courts would still considerer it stealing.
Even by that logic the US didn't steal Texas. The people living in Texas stole it from Mexico and gave it to the US.
I thought the settlers living in Texas refused to convert to Catholocism, which pissed off the Mexicans and triggered the Mex-American War. Then we kicked Santa Ana's ass and then we paid $30M or something for Texas and Cali.
Originally posted by: RichUK
So how many years did the British Empire have ownage over the US, I?m no good at history.
You do realize of course that some parts of the US were stolen from Mexico right? Namely Texas....
Unfortunately you can't judge the past by todays standards. The concept of right and wrong evolve over time. The concept of Might Makes Right was still in full effect back then, and the courts of the day would have declared it perfectly legal. Even though it's considered wrong by todays standards, that's the whole reson the constitution prohibits ex post facto laws.Originally posted by: Brutuskend
Yes, I am aware of all that.
I guess it boils down to what your definition of stealing is.
Hell, for that matter, the whole damn country was "Stolen" from the natives.
Or at least the majority of it was. I guess we DID "pay" for Manhattan Island. And no doubt things were offered up for other small pieces of it. But if you are pointing a gun at someones head when you offer them a pittance for something and they sell it, well most courts would still considerer it stealing.