Fern
Elite Member
- Sep 30, 2003
- 26,907
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Say someone has $50 of their money and $50 of government money. They want to buy $50 worth of groceries and $50 worth of booze. Under the current system they could buy this by use of the $50 in government cash for booze, and then $50 of their own money for food. Under your new idea they would be forced to spend the $50 in government money on food, making them spend the $50 of their own money on booze.
Either way they end up with $50 of food and booze each. It might make you feel better that they spent the government cash one way, but the outcome is entirely the same. I'm unwilling to pay for enforcement of a law that doesn't do anything.
Why dodge my question?
Otherwise, if we're giving them $50 for a specific purpose (to purchase $50 of food) it makes perfect sense to ensure that the $50 was actually spent of food.
You've repeated your arbitrary math example several times. It could as easily be as follows:
Say someone has $50 of their money and $50 of government money. They want to buy $0 worth of groceries and $100 worth of booze. Under the current system they could buy this by use of the $50 in government cash for booze, and then $50 of their own money for more booze. Under your new idea they would be forced to spend the $50 in government money on food, making them spend the $50 of their own money on booze.
Fern
