help w/ simplifying boolean expressions

RichieZ

Diamond Member
Jun 1, 2000
6,551
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I can't figure out how they went from setup 1 to 2 (6 terms to 3 terms)

click here to see it
 

Beattie

Golden Member
Sep 6, 2001
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there is essentially... 2(ABCD) + !A + !C + !A!B!C!D
so
one ABCD cancels one !A!B!C!D leaving !A + !C + ABCD

where ! is the same as the bar.

It's been a long time since I have done this, so I am not sure if it's right
 

RichieZ

Diamond Member
Jun 1, 2000
6,551
40
91
2(ABCD) + !A + !C + !A!B!C!D

isn't this only 5 terms?

there are six terms:
!A + !C + ABCD + AB!C!D + !A!B!C!D + !A!BCD
 

dighn

Lifer
Aug 12, 2001
22,820
4
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i believe they used a k-map simplification. it can be done algebraicly but i dont think you'd wnt to...
basically it involves padding each term so every term has 4 variables in them. you end up with 16 terms of 4 variables then you start the factoring and stuff. kmap does it graphically
 

RichieZ

Diamond Member
Jun 1, 2000
6,551
40
91
Originally posted by: dighn
i believe they used a k-map simplification. it can be done algebraicly but i dont think you'd wnt to...
basically it involves padding each term so every term has 4 variables in them. you end up with 16 terms of 4 variables then you start the factoring and stuff. kmap does it graphically

We learn Karnaugh maps next week, this is supposed to be done algebraicly
 

dighn

Lifer
Aug 12, 2001
22,820
4
81
Originally posted by: RichieZZZZ
Originally posted by: dighn
i believe they used a k-map simplification. it can be done algebraicly but i dont think you'd wnt to...
basically it involves padding each term so every term has 4 variables in them. you end up with 16 terms of 4 variables then you start the factoring and stuff. kmap does it graphically

We learn Karnaugh maps next week, this is supposed to be done algebraicly

in that case, expand !A and !C to be full min terms by multiplying !A by (B+!B)(C+!C)(D+!D) and !C by (A+!A)(B+!B)(D+!D). even on paper that would look complicated and if i do it here using the ! notiation ti would be unreadable :p (i tried in notepad and it's a nightmare)
 

TuxDave

Lifer
Oct 8, 2002
10,571
3
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I believe it's because the C' will encompass all terms with C' in it, like: ABC'D' or A'B'C'D', the same goes with the A' encompassing all other terms. So all other terms with C' goes away. You can see this by this example:

C' + ABC'D' = (1)*C' + ABC'D' = C'(1+ABD') = C'

 

RichieZ

Diamond Member
Jun 1, 2000
6,551
40
91
Originally posted by: TuxDave
I believe it's because the C' will encompass all terms with C' in it, like: ABC'D' or A'B'C'D', the same goes with the A' encompassing all other terms. So all other terms with C' goes away. You can see this by this example:

C' + ABC'D' = (1)*C' + ABC'D' = C'(1+ABD') = C'

THANK YOU, damn I hate it when its this simple but I coudln't see it. I get the rest of it, I was just having trouble with that step
 

Beattie

Golden Member
Sep 6, 2001
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Originally posted by: RichieZZZZ
2(ABCD) + !A + !C + !A!B!C!D

isn't this only 5 terms?

there are six terms:
!A + !C + ABCD + AB!C!D + !A!B!C!D + !A!BCD

oops, I guess I screwed up.