Originally posted by: Vic
Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: thepd7
I see you didn't comment on my Bible verse.
The verse you quoted is an English translation of the Latin translation of the Greek translation of the perhaps, original Aramaic version of the writings from a series of fallible human authors often writing well after the fact that all came from a group of Semitic tribes 4,000 years ago that purport to be the incontestable word of that concept, "God."
This is my comment.
Actually, the Gospel of John is believed to have been originally written in Greek, and is far and away the least historically accurate of the 4 Gospels. Which is why scholars separate it from the 3 synoptic gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke.
In particular, it also advocates Greek gnostic view of early Christianity, as opposed to the 1st century Jewish traditions of the other Gospels.
However, it must be understood that the modern American Christian concept of being 'born again' is a creation of the 1820's Bible Belt Revivals.
In proper context with John 3, Jesus told the Pharisee Nicodemus that he needed to be 'born again,' because Nicodemus believed that his salvation was pre-determined because he was born of the seed of Abraham. Jesus was explaining to Nicodemus that that wasn't enough. That salvation was not dependent on one's physical birth, but on one's spiritual understanding.
I was not referring to John 3 rather 14:6 and a different comment than the OP is about but I appreciate your knowledge on this subject.
