I don't have to show that it is equal at all. Why would I? You basically said that interracial coupling gained some of its legitimacy from being present whenever races were near each other through history.
The legitimacy of interracial couplings/marriages stems primarily from the fact that HETEROSEXUALITY is the default sexuality in humans, and in the end, that trumps all the arbitrary limitations we place upon ourselves when it comes to selecting mates..
Men are men, and women are women. When it comes to sexual attraction, race, ethnicity, religion, social class is often thrown out the window in favor of LUST..
I have my preferences just like any other heterosexual man, but I've found all sorts of women attractive throughout my life. A beautiful woman is a beautiful woman..
I was just reminding you that homosexual coupling is also present in all societies throughout history.
Yes, but homosexuality is not the default sexuality in human beings. A gay man's body is still designed to have sexual intercourse with a woman.. His penis is specifically shaped to penetrate a vagina, and his testes makes sperm cells to fertilize a woman's eggs..
The idea that homosexuality must be a genetic defect is simply unsupportable from what we know today. There could be a number of valid evolutionary reasons for populations to have members that do not reproduce. (in fact large numbers of species have exactly that)
Have you read the theories on the causes of homosexuality? If you have, then you would know that the evidence for homosexuality being biological in nature is overwhelming.
How would the article I linked to be explained, without bringing genetics into it? It's our genes that determine the overall growth of our bodies after all..