Gearing question regarding ratios/FD

[overst33r]

Ok, so let's assume we have two cars with the following gear ratios.
Let's also assume that the MPH in the gears are identical so there's no speed difference. (I couldn't get them exactly right)


Which of the two cars would have the "better" gearing, in terms of performance?


I think the second car would. My reasoning is that the torque multiplication is done sooner, so there is less "loss" by the time it gets to the FD.

I've noticed most race and European performance cars are geared more like the second example. The second car is basically a Porsche GT3RS.

 

[exdeath]

They would both perform identically, in cruise RPM/mpg and acceleration.
Your chart even shows this.

Selection of gear ratios and final drive ratios makes more sense when you are comparing two cars with different weights, different torque curves, different number of gears, etc. Or when changing final drive ratios with the same transmission gear set to trade off acceleration and top speed.

In your case, both cars end up with the same torque at the wheels at the same engine RPM and MPH. Where the multiplication occurs doesn't really matter; if you aren't spinning the ring gear and diff fast, you are having to spin up the output shaft, drive shaft, and pinion gear faster instead. The difference is completely intangible and meaningless in either case next to the weight of the car.

 

[Stefan Payne]

Not much a difference here...