Originally posted by: shrumpage
Originally posted by: Rainsford
Originally posted by: zendari
Originally posted by: RightIsWrong
No it isn't. It is a contract that is entered into between two consenting non-related adults that is sanctioned and recognized by the states. Society has nothing to do with it and neither does society's views.
That is what makes this blatant discrimination. The government, under the equal protection clause, cannot disallow people to enter into a legal arrangement based solely on sexual preference.
And the state can thus choose to saction and recognize certain contracts, but not others. There are plenty of contracts that 2 consenting adults have entered that are not recognized.
You yourself just named 1 qualification: nonrelated. gender difference is another.
So is it ok to limit marriages based on RACE (no marrying between races)? I think most of us agree that it wouldn't be...so clearly some limits are unacceptable, the state's right to sanction and recognize contracts aside. You're trying to hide behind the issue...just because there are some limits does not make ALL limits acceptable.
Is there a significant differnce between a black man and a white man? no
is there a significant difference between a woman and a man?
yes - at every level: biology, appearnce, pyschology, societal there are differnce between men and women. And our society allows laws to be pasted on those differences - selective service being a prime example.
we can say that marriage requires one of each gender, just like we say one can only be married to one person.