- Nov 6, 2005
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Ran across this story on yahoo news. But as we all somewhat know France has a fairly large Muslim community that the so called "white" larger French population is xenophobic about that same Muslim population.
But lets face the facts, there is a tremendous Muslim central valuation in a bride's virginity, and to only a lesser extent, our so called non Muslim culture values the same thing. Which is somewhat sexist in the extreme, there is a certain male sanctioned right to sow wild oats, but no equivalent right by females to do the same.
http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/200...PyGeqd07n9BNASOA2s0NUE
But the link in yahoo news is almost totally silent on what outed the female bride on her lack of virginity.
In the male of our species there is no real test about virginity or lack thereof, unless some female comes forward and says, he did engage with sexual intercourse with me and that witness is deemed creditable. And even permitting the latter case, sometimes its later proved it was not true.
Yet in the female of our species, the test somewhat becomes an intact or not intact hymen. But in some statically significant number of cases, a female will lose her hymen due to physical activity totally unrelated to any sexual activity. And hence that is a poor test of female virginity.
So the question is, how did this French court so rule that this involved fraud? And how would a US court rule?
But lets face the facts, there is a tremendous Muslim central valuation in a bride's virginity, and to only a lesser extent, our so called non Muslim culture values the same thing. Which is somewhat sexist in the extreme, there is a certain male sanctioned right to sow wild oats, but no equivalent right by females to do the same.
http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/200...PyGeqd07n9BNASOA2s0NUE
But the link in yahoo news is almost totally silent on what outed the female bride on her lack of virginity.
In the male of our species there is no real test about virginity or lack thereof, unless some female comes forward and says, he did engage with sexual intercourse with me and that witness is deemed creditable. And even permitting the latter case, sometimes its later proved it was not true.
Yet in the female of our species, the test somewhat becomes an intact or not intact hymen. But in some statically significant number of cases, a female will lose her hymen due to physical activity totally unrelated to any sexual activity. And hence that is a poor test of female virginity.
So the question is, how did this French court so rule that this involved fraud? And how would a US court rule?