JulesMaximus
No Lifer
Here is some info on trademark law from Harvard which actually provides a case which sets the precedence for this one and would result in a Ford win.
Ford most definitely had a case, in fact, that example is absolutely perfect. Family boats vs. performance boats with similar names. You can argue that Ferrari was not selling the "F150," but on the other hand, Slickcraft and Sleekcraft aren't exact either, but they still ruled in Slickcraft's (Ford in this example) favor.
That's almost the entire point of my argument...and one that you keep ignoring. Again, the link I provided gives an expert's opinion which supports mine.
What makes these circumstances interesting is that Ferrari’s racecar is not available for sale. It is only raced by a factory team and therefore cannot be purchased by a consumer. Given such situation, one would almost certainly argue that Ferrari’s F150 is not used in commerce—a prerequisite for both trademark dilution as described in the Federal Trademark Dilution Act and likelihood of confusion, which is required for infringement. Even if one was to say, arguendo, that Ferrari’s use was in commerce, it is difficult to imagine that the level of commerce is so similar that it gives rise to an association between the two marks.
In your example both companies are selling boats. Ferrari isn't selling its F1 car, and Ford doesn't make F1 cars either. Ferrari also doesn't sell pickup trucks. They are completely different scenarios.