(I think what I write is coarsely correct, but someone with more in depth financial markets knowledge will hopefully chime in with a more complete and accurate explanation):
European banking system apparently depends upon short-term wholesale lending to run their businesses, while U. S. banks may rely more on retail deposit base.
- http://video.cnbc.com/gallery/?video=3000058679 (U. S. money market funds apparently provide some wholesale funding for European banks, but have pulled back)
- http://video.cnbc.com/gallery/?video=3000058810 (so so clip; just points out immediate crisis is lack of wholesale funding for European banks, not soveriegn debt per se)
- http://video.cnbc.com/gallery/?video=3000058830 (Euro-TARP?)
Things like other banks and U. S. money markets (think your high yield money market is really that safe?) who normally provide this funding began pulling back a while ago, and these banks are running out of money to keep their businesses open. It would probably somewhat akin to what happened to a lot of businesses post-Lehman, where they lost their line of credit with bank and were forced out of business as a result.
I think coordinated central bank action was to provide low cost dollars (Fed loans dollars for Euros to ECB at fixed currency exchange rate; there is no credit risk per unless ECB goes under http://video.cnbc.com/gallery/?video=3000059845 ) that somehow that unclogs interbank lending among European institutions. Whether that is because they now have correct collateral to get funding from ECB, or just a shock and awe statement by central banks around the world that we won't let these institutions fail so it is safe to lend to them, I don't know. It was the same type of seizing up of credit markets that happened circa Lehman 2008. I think Steve Leisman also made some comment about how it increases profitability of loan to other banks, etc. so it more accurately reflects risk they are taking, as long as institution you are lending to doesn't go bankrupt before you get your money back.
Remember, this immediate crisis (freezing up of wholesale lending to European banks) and underlying sovereign debt crisis are inter-related, but not quite the same (sovereign debt used to be viewed as risk free and equivalent to cash, and because of way European banking regulations are written, they could use it as collateral to make leveraged speculative bets, possibly at leverage up to 40:1. Problem is 10% reduction in face value of those sovereigns makes the same bank insolvent because of leverage).
Previously Greek debt used to be viewed as good and safe as German debt, but that is obviously not true anymore.
Italian debt, at 7%, on the other hand, may end up being a great deal for brave investor willing to step up and take that risk (U. S., through IMF, using 2% money to buy / "bail out" 7% debt?), but only time (and lack of significant "voluntary" haircuts) will tell...
It's close enough that I don't want to completely nitpick it. The 40:1 leverage has to do with the type of assets and it's not European banking regulations it's Basel which are worldwide standards.
The swap program in a sense should be a risk free transaction for the FED as loans are collateralized by Euros from the ECB. Euro-Dollar basis swaps have a lot of credit risk in them (hence why they were trading 160bps on the 3 month).
I will point out a few quick things.
1.) I am not sure how much this program will be used as you have to have eligible ECB assets to take advantage and get Dollar funding to begin with. The reason the Euro banks have gone to the basis swap short term funding model is you don't need a lot of margin to convert assets to dollars. Whereas going to the ECB requires assets and a hair cut.
2.) Money at OIS + 50bps or ~67 if my math is right or money at OIS + 100bps of 117bps makes it a bit cheaper but you still have to get it. Not a huge deal in my book.
3.) Lending at OIS + 50 bps effectively allows Eurobanks to borrow Dollars cheaper than US banks at the discount rate of 75bps. That seems sketchy to me.
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