My employer offers holiday pay to full-time employees working 32 hours per week. I work 4 days a week, 32 to 33 hours per week, every week. So normally I qualify for holiday pay.
However, they did not pay me for 4th of July... which is money I very much need and rely on and expected to get. When they did the math (averaging the last 3 months), I had ONE sick day in June. It's literally the ONLY day I've called off all year.
So from their perspective: tough sh*t. If you do the math, working 32 hours a week for 11 weeks and having one week in there at 24 hours because I got sick once, and that totals 376 hours... which comes out to a 31.33 hour "average" for these last three months. From my perspective it's B.S. since I ALWAYS work 32+ hours every single week... except of course that one sick day. Hell, by that logic, I could work 32 hours every week for a year, but if I call off one sick day ever, it'd still come out to 31.8 as an "average". Is there no way to do it where one lone sick day screws you out of your full-time status? I feel it's also as much about missing one day as the bad timing of it. I could call off 3 weeks in February and have no problem, but if I miss one sick day (or take a paid vacation day... or have another paid holiday fall on a work week... both of which count against my calculated time) within 3 months of a holiday, I won't get paid for the holiday.
I fully understand this isn't a DOL thing, and employers don't have to provide this benefit, and it's up to them how they want to do it. But I do feel it's unfair to strip someone's holiday benefits because they were sick once in 6 months. Besides just complaining about it to them, is there anything I can do? Any advice to determine a "fair" way for them to determine my full-time status? Or is this just the way it is, black & white, if the numbers don't add up to 32 because of missing one day I'm screwed and am no longer eligible for holiday pay?
However, they did not pay me for 4th of July... which is money I very much need and rely on and expected to get. When they did the math (averaging the last 3 months), I had ONE sick day in June. It's literally the ONLY day I've called off all year.
So from their perspective: tough sh*t. If you do the math, working 32 hours a week for 11 weeks and having one week in there at 24 hours because I got sick once, and that totals 376 hours... which comes out to a 31.33 hour "average" for these last three months. From my perspective it's B.S. since I ALWAYS work 32+ hours every single week... except of course that one sick day. Hell, by that logic, I could work 32 hours every week for a year, but if I call off one sick day ever, it'd still come out to 31.8 as an "average". Is there no way to do it where one lone sick day screws you out of your full-time status? I feel it's also as much about missing one day as the bad timing of it. I could call off 3 weeks in February and have no problem, but if I miss one sick day (or take a paid vacation day... or have another paid holiday fall on a work week... both of which count against my calculated time) within 3 months of a holiday, I won't get paid for the holiday.
I fully understand this isn't a DOL thing, and employers don't have to provide this benefit, and it's up to them how they want to do it. But I do feel it's unfair to strip someone's holiday benefits because they were sick once in 6 months. Besides just complaining about it to them, is there anything I can do? Any advice to determine a "fair" way for them to determine my full-time status? Or is this just the way it is, black & white, if the numbers don't add up to 32 because of missing one day I'm screwed and am no longer eligible for holiday pay?
Last edited:
Facebook
Twitter