Offhand I would imagine that he's really got no legitimate case. As a stockholder his equity interest was subordinate to all debt interests held by bond owners. If the stock float had not occurred the company would have been liquidated and stockholders would have received nothing.
Also, the plan was approved by the Board, which was duly elected to represent the stockholders, so through his own proxy representation he approved the move.
Also, the basic gist of his argument would seem to indicate that any issuance of new stock or sale of treasury stock by a corporation which ultimately lead to diminished market cap, no matter how remotely connected, would leave the new share purchasers liable.
After all, the gov't didn't "seize" anything owned by the stockholders; the corporation issued new shares and sold them to the gov't.