Originally posted by: JLee
Originally posted by: DayLaPaul
Because it is against federal law for someone suffering from a mental disorder to own a firearm. The VTech gunman comes to mind. I wonder what how he answered his questionaire.
I don't think so. The question is written in a form to ask about guns being in the household, not specifically owned by a certain individual.
If that were the case- if they were attempting to obtain information for the government, I think they'd be treading a very fine line. The physician would be violating the doctor/client priviledge, and there also may be a case for 4th amendment violation, as they would essentially be acting as an agent for the government.
It's also against the law to possess cocaine- but do you think the office is going to call the cops if someone says they're an addict? Hello lawsuit...