- Jan 4, 2006
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I'm kind of confused. From what I've herad, if you're overclocking, it seems almost ridiculously stupid to get an X2 over an opteron. So why would anyone (who overclocks) get an x2? I think the x2s have SSE3 while the optys dont (maybe?), but thats not that big of an advantage. So is it just marketing? are the "X"2s more "X"treme? Or what? I'm just kinf confused, I don't see why the X2 even exists, as it sounds like AMD could just up the clock on the 939 optys and there ya go. So did AMD release the X2's because of marketing advantages of "X2" versus Opteron? would I be getting ripped off if I got an x2 over an opteron?
The main reason Im posting this is because I was originally going to get a 4400+, but it seems like I could just get an opteron and it would overclock better and at lower voltages, but lots of people still go for the x2s, so I thought "why would they do this? there must be some reason AGH!"
Thanks,
Seer
The main reason Im posting this is because I was originally going to get a 4400+, but it seems like I could just get an opteron and it would overclock better and at lower voltages, but lots of people still go for the x2s, so I thought "why would they do this? there must be some reason AGH!"
Thanks,
Seer