- Aug 13, 2001
- 8,975
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Really dumb question - suppose that I run my i7-2600k at 4.2 Ghz with a set, non-variable voltage of 1.35v.
Then, suppose I bring the frequency down to 4.0 Ghz but keep the exact same, non-variable voltage (1.35v).
In stress tests, will both overclocks (in theory) produce the same amount of heat because both use the same voltage? Or will the 4.2 Ghz stress test produce more heat because it's just a faster speed? What happens if I do a 4.2 Ghz test at 1.30v instead of 1.35v?
I know that both overclocks won't require the same voltage in order to be stable, but I was just wondering, anyway...
Then, suppose I bring the frequency down to 4.0 Ghz but keep the exact same, non-variable voltage (1.35v).
In stress tests, will both overclocks (in theory) produce the same amount of heat because both use the same voltage? Or will the 4.2 Ghz stress test produce more heat because it's just a faster speed? What happens if I do a 4.2 Ghz test at 1.30v instead of 1.35v?
I know that both overclocks won't require the same voltage in order to be stable, but I was just wondering, anyway...