Does 2nd CPU need to be from same lot ?

Ted1

Senior member
Aug 22, 2000
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I am upgrading a newer Dell Poweredge server to a second CPU ( PIII 600 ) and have heard conflicting views. Lets take a vote. Does the 2nd CPU have to be from the same lot as the first or not?
 

rigor2

Banned
Sep 18, 2000
183
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yes. Same stepping levels for the chips.

This is an old questions, an it applies to all CPU's on all smp platforms.

Always use same batch,stepping levels etc, get a matched pair. You obviously have a serious application if you have a poweredge (i have the quad xeon monsters), so best to dump the current P3-600 and get a pair of matched (faster?) ones.

 

spidey07

No Lifer
Aug 4, 2000
65,469
5
76
No is does not have to be from the same lot number, I don't know where that rumor got started. And no it doesn't have to be a matched pair.

If you have been running a server for a 12 to 18 months and need another processor simply order it, slap it in the box and replace your OS kernal with a multiprocessor one. Have done this dozens of times with compaq/sun. Do make sure your apps are mutli-threaded and can take advantage of a 2 way system.

As far as the stepping in concerned, don't know.

You could always call dell and get their answer!

cheers
 

xtreme2k

Diamond Member
Jun 3, 2000
3,078
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it doesnt need to be the same lot

doesnt need to be the same stepping either (usually true)

check intels website for more information

seems to me the CA2 and CB0 has no problem in SMP

HOWEVER, the CC0 seems to have a few incompatiblities



download the pdf
inside the pdf there is a matrix showing which MHz with what stepping is compatible or not
 

Cosmic_Horror

Golden Member
Oct 10, 1999
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it is generally recommended that the two cpu's be of the same stepping , but in general it isn't essentail. :)
 

jinsonxu

Golden Member
Aug 19, 2000
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I'm absolutely new to SMP. I was wondering, could you overclock on a dual processor system? Cause i'm getting a dual CPU MB that supports DDR ram probably in a years time.
 

paulip88

Senior member
Aug 15, 2000
908
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I've heard of people who have even went to the extreme and use a Celeron and PII in a multiprocessor configuration. From this, the only limitation will probably be from different microcode for the different steppings. So, like people have said, it would be ideal if both processors were of the same stepping, but it is possible in some cases that they need not be.
 

Nack

Senior member
Oct 10, 1999
851
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Must intel chips running SMP be from?:

Same lot #: No. (But I usually like to see if I can pull this off, just because chips from the same lot seem to have similar overclocking characteristics. If you are running at rated, speed however, the lot # doesn't matter. In fact, also for this reason, I try to run sequential chips if possible. This is NOT necessary, but it nearly eliminates that annoying problem of having two chips in SMP, one that overclocks 30%, and another that runs hot at rated speed, and has nothing more to give).

Same stepping: I remember reading somewhere that the general rule of thumb from Intel is that it should be within 1 stepping, up or down to do SMP. My own rule for SMP is that the chips MUST be the same stepping. That way I know I am less likely to have problems. Also note that some chips, such as recent coppermine PIIIs, need to be of a certain stepping or higher to do SMP at all. On the coppermines, for example, I think that the cB0 stepping chips were the first stepping reported to work very well dual.

Nack