Im having a bit of an arguement on this.
my friend says:
<<
(assuming the quality of the .18 micron processes are the same((copper etc etc))
And chip A: Tops out at 1.5ghz
While chip B Tops out at 3Ghz.
If you Drop them both to .13(again same process) and chip B Now tops out at 6ghz
Chip A WILL top out at 3Ghz.
>>
is this true? does processors gain the same scalbilty (in %) on the same process shrink?
I dont think so I think it has somthing to do with thier circetry design and distrebution along the processor and its stages...
who's right?
my friend says:
<<
(assuming the quality of the .18 micron processes are the same((copper etc etc))
And chip A: Tops out at 1.5ghz
While chip B Tops out at 3Ghz.
If you Drop them both to .13(again same process) and chip B Now tops out at 6ghz
Chip A WILL top out at 3Ghz.
>>
is this true? does processors gain the same scalbilty (in %) on the same process shrink?
I dont think so I think it has somthing to do with thier circetry design and distrebution along the processor and its stages...
who's right?