BaliBabyDoc
Lifer
- Jan 20, 2001
- 10,737
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the iraq-iran war ended in 1989, and belligerencies between the two dropped to mere whispers with the death of khomeini. the succesive
ayatollahs have kept the rhetoric to a minimum and saddam had tried not to stir the waters either. i don't know that saddam did not use
wmd against the coalition forces in the first gulf war. i am not sure the actual cause of the gulf war syndrome that affected so many personnel
has ever been found.
I think you have misread Iran-Iraq relations. The oligarchy in Iran believes time is its ally. Their neighbor is 60% Shi'ite and 10% Kurd . . . the cleric class believed it was only a matter of time before Saddam's regime would fail b/c it lacked popular support from the people; which is quite ironic considering the source. These two countries fought a brutal war that lasted almost a decade. Saddam (despite US/USSR) assistance was never going to defeat Iran b/c those mofos are true believers plus the population is twice that of Iraq. Therefore, Saddam was satisfied to declare victory and then pick on Kuwait.
As for the first Gulf War the most likely reason Saddam did not use WMD against coalition forces is that Bush, the Greater sent a clear message that use of such weapons would be the end of his regime. I am not implying any back channel deals . . . no proof . . . but Bush never had any intentions of being a pawn of the Neocons; particularly wasting American lives and resources for a problem Iraqis must solve.
Gulf War Syndrome is likely the typical manifestation of a multifactorial illness. Genetics, vaccinations (several used by the US military typically would NEVER be approved for use in the civilian population), exposure to various toxins, heat, and stress conspire to produce an ill-defined, difficult to characterize spectrum disorder. It's unlikely that a solitary agent/event is responsible for US/UK complaints (I would like to know what other coalition countries have to say).
