Originally posted by: daniel49
Basic how we got here from 1999 NYT article.
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All those loans had PMI (paid by the borrower) if their LTVs exceeded 80%. If you think Fannie's Expanded Approvals and Timely Payment Rewards programs are 'how we got here,' then you don't know jack shit about the mortgage industry.
Period.
I hate to be rude, but posting that old article with the comment "Basic how we got here" is about the stupidest spin I've seen on this issue yet. That's not how we got here. Those programs provided a in-between approval between prime and subprime. Before they came out, it used to be a joke that lenders really only had 2 programs, 7% fixed and 10% adjustable. Expanded approval programs allowed those who came just short of the 7% fixed to possibly get approved for an 8% or 9% fixed instead of the 10% ARM.
They were still never true subprime loans though. They didn't have prepayment penalties, stated income, jumbo loan amounts, negative amortization, or allow for any major credit derogs that Fannie wouldn't allow on their prime programs.
To the OP: all 1st mortgages with LTVs>80% had mortgage insurance in some form or another. The difference with true subprime mortgages is that the MI would be factored into the interest rate for each individual loan, as opposed to presented as a separate cost to the borrower. This allowed the lender to buy the MI in bulk on its own, and avoid the additional compliance.
Maybe I have an old rate sheet lying around somewhere, but unlike Fannie/Freddie and governments, interest rates for subprime mortgages were always both FICO and LTV dependent. Typically, the lender would present the rate matrix with FICO ranges running down the left and LTVs across the top, with the lowest rate for best score/lowest LTV in the top left and the highest rates for worst score/highest LTV in the bottom right. These rate differences would be profound too. Let's just say the highest rates for the least poorly qualified borrowers were usually close to the most the law would allow.
An additional note: even 80/20s from Fannie/Fannie had additional costs on their 1st mtgs, usually 1.5% hit to fee, and even in the heyday required full documentation and eligible credit.
edit:
Originally posted by: ironwing
In the bigger picture, I think PMI is basically a shell game anyway, designed to make advertised interest rates look lower. The interest rate is supposed to reflect the risk inherent in the loan. Splitting the risk premium into interest plus PMI is just marketing as far as I can see.
You are correct. Charging MI separately allows for the appearance of a lower interest rate than what is the actual cost of the financing. This is why the Truth in Lending requires that MI be disclosed inside the APR, and why subprime loans usually didn't bother with separating it out (because such borrowers were not as 'rate-sensitive' as prime borrowers).