- Jun 7, 2003
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Why is e^i2pi, e^i4pi, e^i6pi, etc = 1?
I think it is because of Euler's Rule, which would make e^i2pi = cos(2pi) + isin(2pi)
= 1 + i0 = 1. Is this the exact reasoning?
Are there any good websites specifically on exponentials? I am very bad at them and I am in EE so I need to know them really well.
Thanks AT.
I think it is because of Euler's Rule, which would make e^i2pi = cos(2pi) + isin(2pi)
= 1 + i0 = 1. Is this the exact reasoning?
Are there any good websites specifically on exponentials? I am very bad at them and I am in EE so I need to know them really well.
Thanks AT.