Originally posted by: Trevelyan
If mutations cannot introduce an inheritable, positive trait that effects an organism so to enact the laws of natural selection, then there is no new information.
Then what are you defining as "information?" A mutation by itself changes the genetic information, therefore changes the genetic sequence and creates new genetic information (in comparison to the wildtype genotype). Are you trying to say that information must be phenotypically represented?
I don't understand what you are getting at with that statement. A simple statement falsifies what you said: A negative mutation that is inheritable affects an organism to enact the laws of natural selection, but that is creating "new information."
Now understand what I said with the previous statement, a negative mutation does not necessarily mean it will be "selected out of the population" or remain at a low frequency. That allele will remain, because populations are not always in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Mating is not random. Population size is not always sufficiently large. There is emmigration and immigration. This will enable a negative mutation to remain in the population and/or propegate.
Another thought-provoking example is this: A negative mutation could affect the running ability of a organism, but may make that organism more attractive. Is that negative or positive?
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
But, you are missing the point: If a single mutation does not create a beneficial, inheritable change in an organism, then natural selection plays no role in proliferating that mutation, and the mutation is lost. (If the mutation is harmful, the organism will not survive to pass its mutation down the line.)
So you see, if a mutation does not make a change that is either beneficial or harmful, there is no sense talking about natural selection, because it plays no role. Any accumulation of these non-beneficial, non-harmful mutations would be due to sheer chance. So you see, talking about single mutations is a very important aspect of debating the possibility of macroevolution.
Your characterization of mutations is way too black and white. You assume a "negative" mutation will not be passed onto further generations. However, not all negative mutations impact reproduction to sufficiently inhibit it. Mutations have a wide spread in their effects, because of aspects like redundancy and degeneratcy. Mutations are not always "on and off" switches for genes. A mutation could also cause an increase or decreased amount of protein production. This should be obvious when looking at regulatory proteins like transcription factors. What is the difference in a person who has 100mg/dl of glucose in their blood, versus a person with 95 mg/dl of glucose? There won't be a noticeable phenotype to affect reproduction, despite the genetic difference.
Genotype does not always equal phenotype.
Furthermore, your concepts of netural mutations is incorrect. Genes are linked. They are linked on strands of DNA and the lengths of chromosomes. The natural selection of one gene on part of a chromosome will also influence the allelic frequency of other genes, since they are linked on the same chromosome.
Think about it. If a organism with a high level of fitness and reproductive potential suddenly gains a "neutral" mutation, what will happen to the neutral mutation's allelic frequency? Before the mutation, its frequency (for the sake of simplicity) was zero. But after organism reproduces, that neutral mutation's frequency is greater than zero. Since most of the offspring will likely have a high level of fitness and reproductive potential, the "neutral" mutation will propegate in each subsequent generation, creating a new form of genetic information. The accumulation of this neutral mutation is not random. It is inherently coupled to the rest of the genome, and the other aspects of evolution.
Even if the neutral mutation is in association with an organism with a low level of fitness and reproductive potential, it will still accumulate (we cannot assume we are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium).
Therefore, saying a neutral mutation will be completely random, is ignoring what I repeated in my earlier post, that everything in evolution must be considered together with fercunidty, genetic variation, and natural selection. A neutral mutation's allelic frequency can only increase, since there is not negative selection
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
It is very presumptious to claim that your example of the phosphodiesterase enzyme is evidence for the creation of new genetic information. Your basic argument says that since we detect the presence of this enzyme's activity, and that since we know the enzyme's activity is due to the presence of human-made chemicals, you concluce that the human-made chemicals are the CAUSE of the enzyme's creation.
NO!
That is not even close to what I was saying. The chemicals provided an environmental selective pressure to promote the selection of the phosphotriesterase protein with a high affinity for phosphotriester bonds. The allele would have never been propegated and refined if there was not the chemical selective pressure. The mutation, though, is random, but must have been recent, because A)no other bacteria show phophotriesterase activity, B)phosphotriesterases have only been "abundant" in the past 50 years. But read my next part of my response:
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
You are assuming that it is not possible for the baceria to have already had the genetic information to code for the protein, and it was simply triggered by the presence of the chemicals.
That conclusion doesn't take the final step, when I posed the question: "How could an enzyme arise that could catalyze chemicals never seen by bacteria?" Now let me frame that question. Since bacteria have never been exposed to phosphotriester pesticides, phosphotriesterase should be a "neutral" gene and protein. Now, if we assume what you said, that phosphotriesterase is already present in bacteria, it should be seen in other bacteria with zero effect on their fitness. Yet, we've got a problem.
Observation: No other species bacteria contain phosphotriesterase or analogues similar in its activity.
I reminded you in my earlier post about the the "key and lock" concept of enzymes. Enzymes are highly selective for their substrates.
One must not also jump to the idea that phosphotriesterase is randomly distributed, and awaiting a selective pressure to propegate its allele. The problem with that idea, is the initial assumption. If phosphotriesterase is randomly distributed, it should be easily seen in other bacteria. But that isn't the observation.
So where did phosphotriesterase arise? If it was already present, it should be present in other populations of bacteria, only as a neutral affect on those species. But that isn't the observation. Therefore, pinning that phosphotriesterase has always existed is a badly sinking ship.
The conclusions we can draw is that a mutation had to result in the new enzymatic activity. This mutation must have occured very recently, because of the activity is not seen in other bacteria, nor is it seen in other populations of bacteria that have been exposed to the chemicals. Further selection and mutation would refine the enzymatic site, to promote the high affinity phosphotriesterase has for human chemicals.
New genetic and phenotypic information arose.
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
What is even more amazing, is that you are claiming that this enzyme, and the genetic information required for coding its structure, was created and proliferated in the time span of 50 years!
I write with specific purpose. What was said:
Originally posted by: abj13
The evidence is highly compeling to biochemical research, demonstrating that new catalytic activity can be obtained in less than 50 years.
Catalytic activity does not equal a new enzyme. Many enzyme are similar in structure, but differ when it comes to the most important aspect, the active site.
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
Surely your arguement cannot be serious. If you are not claiming what I just said, then you can clearly see that no new information is being created, but rather, preexisiting information in the form of previously unexpressed genes was simply being utlized due to the triggering from the presence of these chemicals.
As I said in my earlier post, and throughout this post:
"Let's not forget that phophotriesterase is not seen in other bacteria."
For it to be pre-existing, you will have to so some observations that phosphotriesterase is present in other bacteria, especially its relatives.
Since it is not present, it must have arisen somewhere, creating new information. The chemical selection for it allowed the information to suddenly arise in high afinnity and frequency.
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
Your example of the yeast cell is merely a speculation, without concrete evidence to support it.
And how? You statement is at the level of saying "no you are wrong."
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
but the fact that it changes does not mean new information is being created. (Read: new, functional, information.)
LOL, what are you defining as "new?" Seems like you are dancing around the issue by demanding something has to have a new "use." Protein coat A is not genetically or phenotypically the same as protein coat B. That is completely new information, because the genetic information changed, and the functionality has changed (now it can avoid the previous generation of anti-bodies).
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
What is the best evidence for evolution, then? The fossil record? Surely, you would have a tough time defending that. Microevolution, or natural selection?
Actually no. Unless you make absurd claims abou the fossil record, ie like others assume that fossils have a high frequency of being preserved.
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
Chemistry, Physics, Microevolution... these are different from Macroevolution. I can test and experiement with the first three, but I can do nothing beside speculate about the latter, because the evidence that is required to accept macroevolution is simply not there.
So, an experiment with the manipulation of variables is required for it to be "non-speculative?" That's more specious reasoning. By your own logic, our ideas of gravity in the solar system are purely speculative, since we cannot "test and experiment" with them. Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle should throw a wrench into quantom theory. If we cannot have a clue about the electron, how in the world can we assume there are distinct energy levels. The evidence of light emission is then purely speculative, since we are not directly manipulating the electron.
These aspects of science are directly comparable to evolution. You argue against evolution since doesn't have "test and experimentation," but that is exactly the issue with quantum theory and other aspects like gravity on the macro-scale.
The point of variable experimentation is to obtain data. We already have data for the solar system or for evolution, through observation and analysis. Science is about
testable hypotheses, not adhereing to a specific dogma of data collection. I don't know where you get the idea that data collection must involve the manipulation of variables. Evolution predicts X, Y, Z. Well, we can go to the fossil record, genomes, current species analysis, and well, this all supports predictions X, Y, Z.
The problem others have though, if evolution is false, then what hypothesis does the data fit?
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
There is an ample supply of unanswered questions that continue to be unanswered. The criticisms are mounting, but no one seems to have the time or ability to settle them.
Such as?
Originally posted by: Trevelyan
I think that if I mentioned that lacking intermediary fossils in the fossil record, it would probably not mean anything because it has been said so many times it has lost its meaning to most people. But, gaps in the fossil record is a powerful arguement against the plausibility of evolution. Where are the millions and millions of different creatures neccessary to bridge the gaps between the fossils we now have uncovered? And yes, tremendous gaps do exist. Could they perhaps not have been found because they do not exist?
Again, that's assuming a high frequncy of preservation within the fossil record.
The usage of "transitionary fossils" always ends up being butchered by people when they challenge it. A scientist may find that organism B is "transitionary" to organisms A and C. The only problem is that some people will demand "Well, what is transitionary to A and B?" This logic, though, completely ignores the initial statement that B is "transitionary" to A and C. Its funny sometimes, if one takes a step back from the evolutionary tree and look at it as a whole, its incredibly surprising how well united the species are.