Originally posted by: torpid
Originally posted by: Modelworks
From the law sites
To prove intentional emotional distress, the plaintiff must show: 1) the defendant must act intentionally or recklessly; (2) the defendant's conduct must be extreme and outrageous; and (3) the conduct must be the cause (4) of severe emotional distress. The definition of outrageous is subjective, but it should be more than mere insults, indignities, threats, annoyances, or petty oppressions. It has been generally defined as conduct which would cause a reasonable person to exclaim "Outrageous!" An example would be falsely informing a person that a close family member had been killed.
So a reasonable person would not find it outrageous to physically threaten someone?
If you are just telling someone in a forum that if you ever see them in person you would shoot them, you would probably be ok. If you told them you would shoot them, that you had their address and knew where they worked. That is totally different.
Its the intent or malice that makes the difference. If you are flaming someone in a forum just for the hell of it, that would be ok. If you were doing it with the intention of having them go out and kill themselves or others , that is totally different.
I think existing laws are enough though. Conspiracy laws cover it pretty well.
Malice is a legal term referring to a party's intention to do injury to another party. Malice is either expressed or implied. Malice is express when there is manifested a deliberate intention unlawfully to take away the life of a human being. Malice is implied when no considerable provocation appears, or when the circumstances attending the killing show an abandoned and malignant heart.
The girl that killed herself because of the mom and kids that did what they did is clearly a case where there was malice towards the girl and they got off way too easy.
It is like a kid who is bullied every day at school, doesn't know a way out or who to turn to so he kills himself. Should the bully be held responsible ?