If you have this: ??(???)dx=?(?'?'+??")dx=???'dn, Where the last integral is over the surface
Why do you have to integrate over dn instead of dx in the final integral, considering all the algebra was done in dx? I just did the calculations myself and I was wondering. Having taken vector calculus, I should know this, but I was wondering the basic reasoning.
Why do you have to integrate over dn instead of dx in the final integral, considering all the algebra was done in dx? I just did the calculations myself and I was wondering. Having taken vector calculus, I should know this, but I was wondering the basic reasoning.
