This isn't to talk shit, but are you a lawyer? (serious question)
My first thought would be that while the legislature has a good bit of latitude about how the courts conduct their business that banning punitive damages is very different than appropriating them for the state. When you ban them from being awarded you are just limiting what the courts can consider. When you're assigning punitive damages to the state you're taking property, which is pretty different. If that were the case could they direct compensatory damages to themselves as well? If not, why?
I cant imagine a law that would require punitive damages be paid to the state in a civil case be legal. The state can steal our wealth in many legal ways. But to take a % of a lawsuit settlement sounds highly unlikely.
