Originally posted by: thesurge
err....
Want me to elaborate?
Obviously the numbers with this property must be in the form of p1*p2*p3*p4*...*p_k, where all the p_i's are prime and none of them equal to each other.
Base case: Obviously n=2 works.
Inductive step: Assume n=p1*p2*p3*p4*...*p_k has the desired property. Consider a prime factor of 2005^n-1 that is not any of the p_i's. Call this prime factor p_(k+1).
It is not hard to show that n*p_(k+1) also has the desired property with the application of Fermat's Little Theorem. However, the minor detail that is keeping this proof from being rigorous is the fact that we haven't shown that such a p_(k+1) actually exists. One would think it has to exist given the enormous magnitude of 2005^n-1, but I have yet to prove it.
Of course, this proof could be totally off base, and there is a much simpler proof.