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Another question about "perfect games" (baseball)

PoPPeR

Diamond Member
I'm a big baseball fan so I think I have a pretty good understanding of the game, but I was watching the first inning of the Braves game today and something came up. With two out in the first, Maddux pitching to Sosa, Sosa hits a popup near the first base dugout but in foul territory. Robert Fick drops the catchable ball, and an error goes on the scoreboard. Maddux gets Sosa out anyways. Now if he doesn't allow any hits or walks or runners to reach base the rest of the game, is it a perfect game? The scoreboard would read 0-0-1, but no runners reached base.
 
Originally posted by: MercenaryForHire
If there's an error, it wouldn't be perfect, now would it?

No hits. No walks. No errors. No nothing. 27 up, 27 down.

- M4H

right

must be at least 9 innings, but could be more than 27 batters. yes?
 
I've never seen an error charged on a foul ball. You sure about that?

If Sosa proceeded to get a home run, is it still that error? He wouldn't have been up had Fick caught it... does he get a hit? You don't get hits when a fielder makes an error...

That's very odd. I've seen many a botched foul popup, but never an error.
 
You can definitely have an error charged on a dropped foul ball. It's rare, though. But that wouldn't negate the perfect game. No one reaches base, 27 batters faced.
 
I would consider it a perfect game, as no one reached base.

In addition, I don't think that should have been charged as an error either.
 
The error on the foul ball is temporary. If the batter reaches base the error stands as it prolonged the at-bat and allowed the batter another chance. If the pitcher goes on to retire the batter the error is removed. It doesn't impact the perfect game in any way as for the error to count the batter would need to reach via another method anyway.
 
Originally posted by: Syringer
Originally posted by: Kevin
Its a not hitter, not a perfect game...

That is the correct answer.

Yep, only a no-no.
However, to play devil's advocate, say Maddux busts a nasty slider in the dirt that Sosa swings at, misses for strike 3....but it gets away from the catcher, a "passed ball"-not an error.. Sosa runs and winds up on 1st. Maddux then strikes out the next batter for the 4th out of the inning (rare but happens). He remains perfect for the rest of the game. Perfect game? or not?

It's never happened but you would have a 28 batter-28 out "Perfect" game. No runs,hits or errors.

 
Clearly if a batter reaches first on a missed third strike, there's no perfect game.

But I maintain an error on a foul ball does not ruin a perfect game. The "perfect" relates to the pitcher, not the entire team. As long as an error doesn't allow a batter to reach base, the perfect game is still intact. Every batter is retired in order.
 
Perfect game definition

"What is a perfect game in baseball? Author Paul Dickson in The New Baseball Dictionary (1999) describes it best with, "A no-hitter in which no opposing player reaches first base, either by a base hit, base on balls, hit batter, or fielding error; i.e., the pitcher or pitchers retire all 27 opposing batters in order."

Also, a dropped foul popup is an error regardless of what the batter subsequently does. The lack of baseball knowledge in this thread is distressing!! 😛
 
Originally posted by: GagHalfrunt
The error on the foul ball is temporary. If the batter reaches base the error stands as it prolonged the at-bat and allowed the batter another chance. If the pitcher goes on to retire the batter the error is removed. It doesn't impact the perfect game in any way as for the error to count the batter would need to reach via another method anyway.
That's what I used to think, but the error sticks as of now... ESPN Box Score

Fielding
E: R Fick(8, dropped foul ball);
 
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