Originally posted by: PCTweaker5
Hey Shimmishim may I ask why you are only running your Mobile at 2600+? Is it because thats as far as it could go or you are going for a burn in type thing before upping the speed? Thank you!
Originally posted by: Shimmishim
1. try using the search button first... this topic has been discussed many times before...
from what i hear, the rule is... add 1350 mhz to the amd speed and that's equivalent to a p4 speed.
so a 2.0 ghz amd processor should be equal to a 3350 mhz p4..
this is just a rough estimate and by no means something that is a definite rule...
take what i say very lightly ... k thanks
Originally posted by: Zebo
Originally posted by: Shimmishim
1. try using the search button first... this topic has been discussed many times before...
from what i hear, the rule is... add 1350 mhz to the amd speed and that's equivalent to a p4 speed.
so a 2.0 ghz amd processor should be equal to a 3350 mhz p4..
this is just a rough estimate and by no means something that is a definite rule...
take what i say very lightly ... k thanks
Not even close. It can't be a set number. Otherwise a 1 Mhz AthlonXP would = 1351 Mhz P4. It's a percentage which is about 40-65% depending on chip. Some examples.
A Barton is about 40% faster than a P4 at same clock therefore:
Barton 3200 (2.2 x 1.40) = About a 3.1 Ghz P4
A 1mb cached A64 is about 65% faster than a P4 at same clock therefore:
A64 3200 (2.0 x 1.65) = about a 3.3 Ghz P4
Originally posted by: Shimmishim
Originally posted by: Zebo
Originally posted by: Shimmishim
1. try using the search button first... this topic has been discussed many times before...
from what i hear, the rule is... add 1350 mhz to the amd speed and that's equivalent to a p4 speed.
so a 2.0 ghz amd processor should be equal to a 3350 mhz p4..
this is just a rough estimate and by no means something that is a definite rule...
take what i say very lightly ... k thanks
Not even close. It can't be a set number. Otherwise a 1 Mhz AthlonXP would = 1351 Mhz P4. It's a percentage which is about 40-65% depending on chip. Some examples.
A Barton is about 40% faster than a P4 at same clock therefore:
Barton 3200 (2.2 x 1.40) = About a 3.1 Ghz P4
A 1mb cached A64 is about 65% faster than a P4 at same clock therefore:
A64 3200 (2.0 x 1.65) = about a 3.3 Ghz P4
eh... close enough2.0 ghz amd = 3.3 ghz p4.... hehehe...
like i said, take what i say lightly.. it's only what i heard...
and i am running my 2500+ @ 2.6 ghz because i'm waiting to get a prommy mounting kit so i can run the beast at 2.8+ ghz...
Originally posted by: TStep
I think AMD was using a formula for AMD XP cpus, maybe:
((actual speed) x 1.5) - (a factor for fsb and cache)
Factor:
133 fsb and 256k L2 ..... subtract 500
166 fsb and 512k L2 ..... subtract 200
200 fsb and 512k L2 ..... subtract 100
ie:
(1466mhz x 1.5) - 500 = 1699 ie AMDXP 1700+ TBred Core
(1833mhz x 1.5) - 200 = 2550 ie AMDXP 2500+ Barton Core
(2200mhz x 1.5) - 100 = 3200 ie AMDXP 3200+ Barton Core
I think it is a fairly accurate approximation at lower speeds, but not the higher ones. AMD gives the higher fsb and L2 cache too much benefit in my opinion.
I think something like:
((actual speed) x 1.5) - (factor fsb + factor L2 cache size) is more accurate in the broad scheme.
factors being:
256k ....... 300
512k ....... 200
133 fsb ...... 200
166 fsb ...... 150
200 fsb ...... 100
ie:
(1466mhz x 1.5) - (200 + 300) = 1700 for a 1700+
(1833mhz x 1.5) - (150 + 200) = 2400 for a 2500+
(2200mhz x 1.5) - (100 + 200) = 3000 for a 3200+
Just my opinion, but I think it closer approximates benchmark results.
Originally posted by: Hyperlite
in short, dollar for dollar, AMD owns intel